The Southern leaders would not accept constitutional, electoral procedure.
South Carolina had seceded months before Lincoln was inaugurated.
The CSA fired on US ships under Buchanan and Lincoln's administrations.
No where does the 10th Amendment, much less the Constitution, permit states to secede.
Slavery was well off and protected, with 90% of the economy vested directed and indirectly in the cotton empire.
Southerners could (1) no longer stand being called immoral, and (2) not live on an equal basis with the slaves. They are much like our far right conservatives.
The Old South deserved to die.
JakeStarkey,
You write....
"The CSA fired on US ships under Buchanan and Lincoln's administrations."
Buchanan attempted to send a supply ship to the Yankee soldiers at Fort
Sumter, In order to reach Fort Sumter, that supply ship would violate the sovereign State of South Carolina's territorial waters in CHARLESTON HARBOR: The invasion of South Carolina/CHARLESTON HARBOR by this supply ship was an act of War, when the U.S. was forbidden to enter South Carolina's territorial waters. A U.S. Ship cannot simply waltz into any Harbor in the world if the Country wherein the harbor lies forbids its entrance. Such would constitute an act of War, this is why today, if a U.S. Air Force plane enters Russian airspace it will likely be met with force and be shot down.
Next you state....
"No where does the 10th Amendment, much less the Constitution, permit states to secede."
The simple fact that YOUR 1787/1789 U.S. Constitution does not address the subject of secession, means that it is a POWER reserved by each State INDIVIDUALLY....READ THE TENTH AMENDMENT....
"
The powers not delegated to the United States by the Constitution, nor prohibited by it to the states, are reserved to the states respectively, or to the people."
JAKE STARKEY, You also state.....
"Southerners could (1) no longer stand being called immoral, and (2) not live on an equal basis with the slaves. They are much like our far right conservatives."
How about I ask you a question here to show your hypocrisy....
Could the U.S. stand to live on an equal basis with the Native American Indian in 1860?
How were the free Slaves in the North Treated? Or the Irish for that matter? Were they treated as equals?
The reason I ask is that I am confused when I read these Northern States Jim Crow laws....
Pennsylvania
1869: Education [Statute] Black children prohibited from attending Pittsburgh schools.
1956: Adoption [Statute] Petition must state race or color of adopting parents.
Rhode Island
1872: Miscegenation [State Code] Prohibited intermarriage. Penalty: $1,000 fine, or up to six months' imprisonment.
Ohio
Enacted a miscegenation statute in 1877 and a school segregation law in 1878. Segregation of public facilities was barred in 1884
Illinois
1927: Housing [Municipal Code]
Chicago adopted racially restrictive housing covenants beginning in 1927.
Indiana
Enacted seven Jim Crow laws in the areas of education and miscegenation between 1869 and 1952.