The NEWER Official Discussion Thread for the creation of Israel, the UN and the British Mandate

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Hello fellow posters,

We seem to be straying away from the point of this thread.
It is turning into the thread which used to be available at the top about the two state solution.

I found this thread still available where post 1948 can be discussed. Let us all meet there:



As for self determination for the Arabs pre 1948, we can all discuss the 1937 and 1947 proposals for partition of what was left of the Mandate for Palestine after 78% was given to the Hashemites, and whether the Arab leaders were looking for what was the best for the Arab population or if they were looking for something else.

Were the Arab leaders looking for Justice for the Arabs who lived there at the time, or were they looking for something else altogether?

What happened in 1920, 1921, 1929, 1936 to 1939 and before Israel declared Independence?

How could the Arab leaders have helped the Arab population achieve self determination from 1920 on ?

Did the Arab leaders actions, since 1920, help or hinder the aspirations of two states, one Jewish and one Arab? Was there such an aspiration before May 1948?


Well , what we can be sure of is that , given the lack of crystal balls on the planet , the Arab rejection of a Jewish homeland in Palestine was both understandable and reasonable.

I can't recall a situation when the native population eagerly supported their own dispossession and displacement at the hands on recently arrived immigrants from foreign lands with a completely different culture.

Anyone think of where that has ever happened just to give an exception to the rule ?
FYI, a ton of info.

FYI, a ton of misinformation. The propagandists seem to share your befuddlement about a geographic area. From the “about” section: OUR STATEMENT - 1948

“How was it that one nation, Palestine, which was under the protection of the League of Nations after WW1...”

The Magical Kingdom of Pal’istan was one nation?

When did that happen?
Palestine’s legal position under International Law was clear: The United Kingdom was mandated Palestine in one piece. Article 5 of the Mandate required the Mandatory Power (the UK) to ensure that "no Palestine territory shall be ceded or leased to, or in any way, placed under the control of the government of any foreign power".

During the term of the Mandate for Palestine, that was the case. You failed to notice that the Mandate ended at midnight on 14 May, 1948. The Mandate did not / does not extend in perpetuity.

Cutting and pasting a snippet from a blog without understanding the greater context (or intending to mislead about that context), is a failed argument.

When the Mandate ended, there were no lingering requirements that survived the ending of the Mandate.
When the Mandate ended, there were no lingering requirements that survived the ending of the Mandate.
Statehood, citizenship, and basic rights are preserved by international law without the requirement of a mandate.
You still don’t understand there was no “state of Pally’land” thus no citizenship. The Arabs-Moslems refused any action that would have allowed them participation in self-determination. No one denied any rights to the Arabs-Moslems.

You spend your every waking moment blaming others for your failures.
there was no “state of Pally’land” thus no citizenship.
More unsubstantiated Israeli talking points.
 
Hello fellow posters,

We seem to be straying away from the point of this thread.
It is turning into the thread which used to be available at the top about the two state solution.

I found this thread still available where post 1948 can be discussed. Let us all meet there:



As for self determination for the Arabs pre 1948, we can all discuss the 1937 and 1947 proposals for partition of what was left of the Mandate for Palestine after 78% was given to the Hashemites, and whether the Arab leaders were looking for what was the best for the Arab population or if they were looking for something else.

Were the Arab leaders looking for Justice for the Arabs who lived there at the time, or were they looking for something else altogether?

What happened in 1920, 1921, 1929, 1936 to 1939 and before Israel declared Independence?

How could the Arab leaders have helped the Arab population achieve self determination from 1920 on ?

Did the Arab leaders actions, since 1920, help or hinder the aspirations of two states, one Jewish and one Arab? Was there such an aspiration before May 1948?


Well , what we can be sure of is that , given the lack of crystal balls on the planet , the Arab rejection of a Jewish homeland in Palestine was both understandable and reasonable.

I can't recall a situation when the native population eagerly supported their own dispossession and displacement at the hands on recently arrived immigrants from foreign lands with a completely different culture.

Anyone think of where that has ever happened just to give an exception to the rule ?
FYI, a ton of info.

FYI, a ton of misinformation. The propagandists seem to share your befuddlement about a geographic area. From the “about” section: OUR STATEMENT - 1948

“How was it that one nation, Palestine, which was under the protection of the League of Nations after WW1...”

The Magical Kingdom of Pal’istan was one nation?

When did that happen?
Palestine’s legal position under International Law was clear: The United Kingdom was mandated Palestine in one piece. Article 5 of the Mandate required the Mandatory Power (the UK) to ensure that "no Palestine territory shall be ceded or leased to, or in any way, placed under the control of the government of any foreign power".

During the term of the Mandate for Palestine, that was the case. You failed to notice that the Mandate ended at midnight on 14 May, 1948. The Mandate did not / does not extend in perpetuity.

Cutting and pasting a snippet from a blog without understanding the greater context (or intending to mislead about that context), is a failed argument.

When the Mandate ended, there were no lingering requirements that survived the ending of the Mandate.
When the Mandate ended, there were no lingering requirements that survived the ending of the Mandate.
Statehood, citizenship, and basic rights are preserved by international law without the requirement of a mandate.
You still don’t understand there was no “state of Pally’land” thus no citizenship. The Arabs-Moslems refused any action that would have allowed them participation in self-determination. No one denied any rights to the Arabs-Moslems.

You spend your every waking moment blaming others for your failures.
there was no “state of Pally’land” thus no citizenship.
More unsubstantiated Israeli talking points.
Your usual slogans.

There was never a “state of pally’land“. It’s really pretty simple.

Now, In anticipating another your usual, slogans: “link?”.

No, there is no link to that which never existed. However, I can certainly show you the error of your juvenile “prove it isn’t” nonsense.

I have proved there was never some imaginary “state of Pal’istan”. Prove I haven’t.

Link?
 
You employed the racist™️canard on queue.

As to the Arabs-Moslems working to form a civil government, why don’t you consider some overseas outreach and become a mediator to resolve the divides that separate the competing mini-caliphates? I treat the competing mini-caliphates as separate and antagonist entities because that’s how they view each other. You do know they fought a rather nasty civil war that left bodies littering the streets, right?

Odd you should suggest that the Pals might be able to form a unified assembly/parliament. With the PNA / PLO / PLC being something of a model for fraud, waste and mismanagement and the quasi sharia / Islamic terrorist hierarchy in Gaza’istan, your comment suggesting that the Islamic terrorists at the top of the welfare fraud food chain will form a workable government is rather silly. Why haven’t they done so already, (note-please don't feel a need to litter the thread with the expected conspiracy theories involving the Great Satan™️, the Zionist Entity™️ and the Brits.)

You’re hoping to exploit a conspiracy theory about Jews, money foreign invaders and something about “criminal exploitation of the Palestinians and their land”. Those are all the stereotypical conspiracy theories and canards that get tossed around so I have to ask if you’re willing or able to actually form a coherent argument?

What do you think would happen if, as you suggest, everyone took the welfare money out of the hands of the Arabs-Moslems?

When people say that certain peoples are not able to govern themselves it reeks of racism. It was the mainstay of the white mans burden throughout their subjugation of the peoples of the world in their ages of empire. So if you got called out on posing the same racist claptrap here, you got what you deserved imo.

Not only do I know that the Fatah and Hamas factions fought the Battle of Gaza ,I know what was behind it and that falls into the divide an conquer tactics used by the usual suspects.What you foolishly refer to as conspiracy theory is actually the tried and tested means virtually all conflicts/empires are structured. That you wish to see it as a fantasy only shows how out of touch you are.

The criminal exploitation of the Palestinians and their land is real and easily understood for those that view different peoples as being equal wrt rights .

If the foreigh donors stopped their money supply then the whole greater Israel project ( an possibly Israel itself ) would start to unravel and the dire situation of the Palestinians would be impossible for the world to ignore the way it does. I'm not advocating it because of the suffering it would cause but that's what I think would happen.

Israel, as the occupying power, is getting away from the financial burden of that occupation. As an occupier it would and should be resoponsible for the welfare of the people it occupies.
When people say that certain peoples are not able to govern themselves because certain peoples have shown no ability yo govern themselves, it means that that certain peoples are not able to govern themselves.

The silly racism™️ slogan is timewasting. If you’re going to litter every post with the silly racism™️ slogan, try first presenting a coherent argument.

Second, why retreat to silly conspiracy theories as a vehicle to excuse the tribal warfare that was an underlying cause of the Hamas vs. Fatah civil war? Your retreat to the silly divide and conquer tactics™️ is just another tired cliché.

Your next slogan is the criminal exploitation™️ canard. It’s another slogan that you can’t define, explain or provide support for. That’s, umm, you know. racist™️

Your next slogan is the “if the foreign donors (who you can’t define) stopped their money supply, Israel would collapse™️”, slogan. Well, actually no.


What “occupation” are you referring to? What sovereign territory of either the Abbas or the Hamas mini-caliphate is occupied by Israel?
the tribal warfare that was an underlying cause of the Hamas vs. Fatah civil war?
You post this a lot but you don't know anything about it.
I post that because it’s a relevant fact. I notice you don’t proceed beyond your usual, silly, one-liners suggesting you don’t know anything about it.
Do you know it started with Oslo?

Of course not.

Do you know you’re wrong?

Of course not. Your usual slogan dump and then bail.
Obviously you never read Oslo.
Obviously, you never understood Oslo.
 
Hello fellow posters,

We seem to be straying away from the point of this thread.
It is turning into the thread which used to be available at the top about the two state solution.

I found this thread still available where post 1948 can be discussed. Let us all meet there:



As for self determination for the Arabs pre 1948, we can all discuss the 1937 and 1947 proposals for partition of what was left of the Mandate for Palestine after 78% was given to the Hashemites, and whether the Arab leaders were looking for what was the best for the Arab population or if they were looking for something else.

Were the Arab leaders looking for Justice for the Arabs who lived there at the time, or were they looking for something else altogether?

What happened in 1920, 1921, 1929, 1936 to 1939 and before Israel declared Independence?

How could the Arab leaders have helped the Arab population achieve self determination from 1920 on ?

Did the Arab leaders actions, since 1920, help or hinder the aspirations of two states, one Jewish and one Arab? Was there such an aspiration before May 1948?


Well , what we can be sure of is that , given the lack of crystal balls on the planet , the Arab rejection of a Jewish homeland in Palestine was both understandable and reasonable.

I can't recall a situation when the native population eagerly supported their own dispossession and displacement at the hands on recently arrived immigrants from foreign lands with a completely different culture.

Anyone think of where that has ever happened just to give an exception to the rule ?
I do not know where you read or heard that the Arab Palestinians are the native population of Canaan. If so, that means that most of its history did not happen, and that Christianity did not come out of what happened there either.

You start with a false premise, pushed by the Arabs Muslims themselves since 1973, as they could not destroy Israel with any military attacks.

The Quran itself tells of the Jews being there as the native population when the Arabs' ancestors invaded the land. It was not until losing the 1948 to the Jews and the creation of Israel that some Arab leaders began to misinform the public and their own population, telling them that the Palestinians, who only became a nationlized people, in 1964, after Arafat .....with the Soviet KGB, came up with that idea.

The Arab leader, the Grand Mufti, tells how the Jews did not invade and dispossess any Arabs, but bought lands that no one wanted. Tel Aviv was built on one such land, which had been nothing but unwanted swamp.


-----------
Yes, the Arab Muslims have been a totally foreign body on the land, since the 7th century, with a totally different religion and a totally different culture and language.

But there was nothing that unarmed Jews and others living there at the time could do then, or later.
Not until the end of the 19th century.

Why?

Because of endless pogroms against the Jews.

Check the Pogrom which happened in Damascus in the 19th century.

When any people, in groups or just families, from anywhere in the world go and live somewhere else, it does not make the new place their indigenous, native place.

Where the Jews came from, the land of Canaan, Israel, Judea, Palestine, always was and continues to be their departing place and the place where they have every right to return to, as they made it their home for over 3000 years.

As to the Palestinians, their parting place is Arabia.
That is where they are indigenous from, no matter when they left.

I will ask again, what happened in 1920, 1921, 1929, 1936 to 1939 and in 1947?
Yes, the Arab Muslims have been a totally foreign body on the land, since the 7th century, with a totally different religion and a totally different culture and language.
Are you implying that in the 7th century every native of Palestine moved out and an entirely new population of Arab Muslims moved in?

Natives...

In the 7th century most were already not natives, mixed multitude of people - just like US.
The Arab population changed, tribes moved in and out with each invading Caliphate.
Jewish communities remained, built Ramla - the only new town under Arab rule.

By definition, Arab tribes and their culture are foreign to the land.
Judea by definition will always remain Jewish land.

Simple as that.
 
Last edited:
You employed the racist™️canard on queue.

As to the Arabs-Moslems working to form a civil government, why don’t you consider some overseas outreach and become a mediator to resolve the divides that separate the competing mini-caliphates? I treat the competing mini-caliphates as separate and antagonist entities because that’s how they view each other. You do know they fought a rather nasty civil war that left bodies littering the streets, right?

Odd you should suggest that the Pals might be able to form a unified assembly/parliament. With the PNA / PLO / PLC being something of a model for fraud, waste and mismanagement and the quasi sharia / Islamic terrorist hierarchy in Gaza’istan, your comment suggesting that the Islamic terrorists at the top of the welfare fraud food chain will form a workable government is rather silly. Why haven’t they done so already, (note-please don't feel a need to litter the thread with the expected conspiracy theories involving the Great Satan™️, the Zionist Entity™️ and the Brits.)

You’re hoping to exploit a conspiracy theory about Jews, money foreign invaders and something about “criminal exploitation of the Palestinians and their land”. Those are all the stereotypical conspiracy theories and canards that get tossed around so I have to ask if you’re willing or able to actually form a coherent argument?

What do you think would happen if, as you suggest, everyone took the welfare money out of the hands of the Arabs-Moslems?

When people say that certain peoples are not able to govern themselves it reeks of racism. It was the mainstay of the white mans burden throughout their subjugation of the peoples of the world in their ages of empire. So if you got called out on posing the same racist claptrap here, you got what you deserved imo.

Not only do I know that the Fatah and Hamas factions fought the Battle of Gaza ,I know what was behind it and that falls into the divide an conquer tactics used by the usual suspects.What you foolishly refer to as conspiracy theory is actually the tried and tested means virtually all conflicts/empires are structured. That you wish to see it as a fantasy only shows how out of touch you are.

The criminal exploitation of the Palestinians and their land is real and easily understood for those that view different peoples as being equal wrt rights .

If the foreigh donors stopped their money supply then the whole greater Israel project ( an possibly Israel itself ) would start to unravel and the dire situation of the Palestinians would be impossible for the world to ignore the way it does. I'm not advocating it because of the suffering it would cause but that's what I think would happen.

Israel, as the occupying power, is getting away from the financial burden of that occupation. As an occupier it would and should be resoponsible for the welfare of the people it occupies.
When people say that certain peoples are not able to govern themselves because certain peoples have shown no ability yo govern themselves, it means that that certain peoples are not able to govern themselves.

The silly racism™️ slogan is timewasting. If you’re going to litter every post with the silly racism™️ slogan, try first presenting a coherent argument.

Second, why retreat to silly conspiracy theories as a vehicle to excuse the tribal warfare that was an underlying cause of the Hamas vs. Fatah civil war? Your retreat to the silly divide and conquer tactics™️ is just another tired cliché.

Your next slogan is the criminal exploitation™️ canard. It’s another slogan that you can’t define, explain or provide support for. That’s, umm, you know. racist™️

Your next slogan is the “if the foreign donors (who you can’t define) stopped their money supply, Israel would collapse™️”, slogan. Well, actually no.


What “occupation” are you referring to? What sovereign territory of either the Abbas or the Hamas mini-caliphate is occupied by Israel?
the tribal warfare that was an underlying cause of the Hamas vs. Fatah civil war?
You post this a lot but you don't know anything about it.
I post that because it’s a relevant fact. I notice you don’t proceed beyond your usual, silly, one-liners suggesting you don’t know anything about it.
Do you know it started with Oslo?

Of course not.

Do you know you’re wrong?

Of course not. Your usual slogan dump and then bail.
Obviously you never read Oslo.

Arab tribal rivalry didn't start with Oslo,
this just shows how little you know about the region.


The Qays–Yaman rivalry refers to the historical rivalry and blood feud between the factions of the Qays (who were Adnanites or northern Arabians) and Yaman (who were Qahtanites or southern Arabians) in the Arab world. The conflict first emerged among the Arab tribes that constituted the Umayyad army and administration in the 7th and 8th centuries. Membership in either faction was rooted in the genealogical origins, real or perceived, of the Arab tribes, which divided them into south Arabian descendants of Qahtan (Yaman) or north Arabian descendants of Adnan (Qays). Yamani tribes, including the Kalb, Ghassan, Tanukh, Judham and Lakhm, were well-established in central and southern Syria in pre-Islamic times, while Qaysi tribes, such as the Sulaym, Kilab and Uqayl, largely migrated to northern Syria and Upper Mesopotamia with the Muslim armies in the mid-7th century.
 
Hello fellow posters,

We seem to be straying away from the point of this thread.
It is turning into the thread which used to be available at the top about the two state solution.

I found this thread still available where post 1948 can be discussed. Let us all meet there:



As for self determination for the Arabs pre 1948, we can all discuss the 1937 and 1947 proposals for partition of what was left of the Mandate for Palestine after 78% was given to the Hashemites, and whether the Arab leaders were looking for what was the best for the Arab population or if they were looking for something else.

Were the Arab leaders looking for Justice for the Arabs who lived there at the time, or were they looking for something else altogether?

What happened in 1920, 1921, 1929, 1936 to 1939 and before Israel declared Independence?

How could the Arab leaders have helped the Arab population achieve self determination from 1920 on ?

Did the Arab leaders actions, since 1920, help or hinder the aspirations of two states, one Jewish and one Arab? Was there such an aspiration before May 1948?


Well , what we can be sure of is that , given the lack of crystal balls on the planet , the Arab rejection of a Jewish homeland in Palestine was both understandable and reasonable.

I can't recall a situation when the native population eagerly supported their own dispossession and displacement at the hands on recently arrived immigrants from foreign lands with a completely different culture.

Anyone think of where that has ever happened just to give an exception to the rule ?
FYI, a ton of info.

FYI, a ton of misinformation. The propagandists seem to share your befuddlement about a geographic area. From the “about” section: OUR STATEMENT - 1948

“How was it that one nation, Palestine, which was under the protection of the League of Nations after WW1...”

The Magical Kingdom of Pal’istan was one nation?

When did that happen?
Palestine’s legal position under International Law was clear: The United Kingdom was mandated Palestine in one piece. Article 5 of the Mandate required the Mandatory Power (the UK) to ensure that "no Palestine territory shall be ceded or leased to, or in any way, placed under the control of the government of any foreign power".

During the term of the Mandate for Palestine, that was the case. You failed to notice that the Mandate ended at midnight on 14 May, 1948. The Mandate did not / does not extend in perpetuity.

Cutting and pasting a snippet from a blog without understanding the greater context (or intending to mislead about that context), is a failed argument.

When the Mandate ended, there were no lingering requirements that survived the ending of the Mandate.
When the Mandate ended, there were no lingering requirements that survived the ending of the Mandate.
Statehood, citizenship, and basic rights are preserved by international law without the requirement of a mandate.
You still don’t understand there was no “state of Pally’land” thus no citizenship. The Arabs-Moslems refused any action that would have allowed them participation in self-determination. No one denied any rights to the Arabs-Moslems.

You spend your every waking moment blaming others for your failures.
there was no “state of Pally’land” thus no citizenship.
More unsubstantiated Israeli talking points.
Your usual slogans.

There was never a “state of pally’land“. It’s really pretty simple.

Now, In anticipating another your usual, slogans: “link?”.

No, there is no link to that which never existed. However, I can certainly show you the error of your juvenile “prove it isn’t” nonsense.

I have proved there was never some imaginary “state of Pal’istan”. Prove I haven’t.

Link?
You always say that when you haven't.
 
the-flag-of-palestine-1939-from-the-larousse-french-dictionary-24351129.png
 

This is the only one I have found.

We have passed that threshold.
Only one state - Israel.
No options.

You'll see.


And the obvious civil rights movement that could end the Zionist dream altogether or at least scupper its democratic status
 
Hello fellow posters,

We seem to be straying away from the point of this thread.
It is turning into the thread which used to be available at the top about the two state solution.

I found this thread still available where post 1948 can be discussed. Let us all meet there:



As for self determination for the Arabs pre 1948, we can all discuss the 1937 and 1947 proposals for partition of what was left of the Mandate for Palestine after 78% was given to the Hashemites, and whether the Arab leaders were looking for what was the best for the Arab population or if they were looking for something else.

Were the Arab leaders looking for Justice for the Arabs who lived there at the time, or were they looking for something else altogether?

What happened in 1920, 1921, 1929, 1936 to 1939 and before Israel declared Independence?

How could the Arab leaders have helped the Arab population achieve self determination from 1920 on ?

Did the Arab leaders actions, since 1920, help or hinder the aspirations of two states, one Jewish and one Arab? Was there such an aspiration before May 1948?


Well , what we can be sure of is that , given the lack of crystal balls on the planet , the Arab rejection of a Jewish homeland in Palestine was both understandable and reasonable.

I can't recall a situation when the native population eagerly supported their own dispossession and displacement at the hands on recently arrived immigrants from foreign lands with a completely different culture.

Anyone think of where that has ever happened just to give an exception to the rule ?
FYI, a ton of info.

FYI, a ton of misinformation. The propagandists seem to share your befuddlement about a geographic area. From the “about” section: OUR STATEMENT - 1948

“How was it that one nation, Palestine, which was under the protection of the League of Nations after WW1...”

The Magical Kingdom of Pal’istan was one nation?

When did that happen?
Palestine’s legal position under International Law was clear: The United Kingdom was mandated Palestine in one piece. Article 5 of the Mandate required the Mandatory Power (the UK) to ensure that "no Palestine territory shall be ceded or leased to, or in any way, placed under the control of the government of any foreign power".

During the term of the Mandate for Palestine, that was the case. You failed to notice that the Mandate ended at midnight on 14 May, 1948. The Mandate did not / does not extend in perpetuity.

Cutting and pasting a snippet from a blog without understanding the greater context (or intending to mislead about that context), is a failed argument.

When the Mandate ended, there were no lingering requirements that survived the ending of the Mandate.
When the Mandate ended, there were no lingering requirements that survived the ending of the Mandate.
Statehood, citizenship, and basic rights are preserved by international law without the requirement of a mandate.
You still don’t understand there was no “state of Pally’land” thus no citizenship. The Arabs-Moslems refused any action that would have allowed them participation in self-determination. No one denied any rights to the Arabs-Moslems.

You spend your every waking moment blaming others for your failures.
there was no “state of Pally’land” thus no citizenship.
More unsubstantiated Israeli talking points.
Your usual slogans.

There was never a “state of pally’land“. It’s really pretty simple.

Now, In anticipating another your usual, slogans: “link?”.

No, there is no link to that which never existed. However, I can certainly show you the error of your juvenile “prove it isn’t” nonsense.

I have proved there was never some imaginary “state of Pal’istan”. Prove I haven’t.

Link?
There was never a “state of pally’land“. It’s really pretty simple.
Prove it or it is just another Israeli lie.
 

This is the only one I have found.

We have passed that threshold.
Only one state - Israel.
No options.

You'll see.


And the obvious civil rights movement that could end the Zionist dream altogether or at least scupper its democratic status

If I had a penny for each time someone said that.
Back in the day they said the same thing about declaring independence.

And here we are! ;)
 
Last edited:
Hello fellow posters,

We seem to be straying away from the point of this thread.
It is turning into the thread which used to be available at the top about the two state solution.

I found this thread still available where post 1948 can be discussed. Let us all meet there:



As for self determination for the Arabs pre 1948, we can all discuss the 1937 and 1947 proposals for partition of what was left of the Mandate for Palestine after 78% was given to the Hashemites, and whether the Arab leaders were looking for what was the best for the Arab population or if they were looking for something else.

Were the Arab leaders looking for Justice for the Arabs who lived there at the time, or were they looking for something else altogether?

What happened in 1920, 1921, 1929, 1936 to 1939 and before Israel declared Independence?

How could the Arab leaders have helped the Arab population achieve self determination from 1920 on ?

Did the Arab leaders actions, since 1920, help or hinder the aspirations of two states, one Jewish and one Arab? Was there such an aspiration before May 1948?


Well , what we can be sure of is that , given the lack of crystal balls on the planet , the Arab rejection of a Jewish homeland in Palestine was both understandable and reasonable.

I can't recall a situation when the native population eagerly supported their own dispossession and displacement at the hands on recently arrived immigrants from foreign lands with a completely different culture.

Anyone think of where that has ever happened just to give an exception to the rule ?
FYI, a ton of info.

FYI, a ton of misinformation. The propagandists seem to share your befuddlement about a geographic area. From the “about” section: OUR STATEMENT - 1948

“How was it that one nation, Palestine, which was under the protection of the League of Nations after WW1...”

The Magical Kingdom of Pal’istan was one nation?

When did that happen?
Palestine’s legal position under International Law was clear: The United Kingdom was mandated Palestine in one piece. Article 5 of the Mandate required the Mandatory Power (the UK) to ensure that "no Palestine territory shall be ceded or leased to, or in any way, placed under the control of the government of any foreign power".

During the term of the Mandate for Palestine, that was the case. You failed to notice that the Mandate ended at midnight on 14 May, 1948. The Mandate did not / does not extend in perpetuity.

Cutting and pasting a snippet from a blog without understanding the greater context (or intending to mislead about that context), is a failed argument.

When the Mandate ended, there were no lingering requirements that survived the ending of the Mandate.
When the Mandate ended, there were no lingering requirements that survived the ending of the Mandate.
Statehood, citizenship, and basic rights are preserved by international law without the requirement of a mandate.
You still don’t understand there was no “state of Pally’land” thus no citizenship. The Arabs-Moslems refused any action that would have allowed them participation in self-determination. No one denied any rights to the Arabs-Moslems.

You spend your every waking moment blaming others for your failures.
there was no “state of Pally’land” thus no citizenship.
More unsubstantiated Israeli talking points.
It's a reality, not a talking point.
 

This is the only one I have found.

We have passed that threshold.
Only one state - Israel.
No options.

You'll see.


And the obvious civil rights movement that could end the Zionist dream altogether or at least scupper its democratic status

If I had a penny for each time someone said that.
Back in the day they said the same thing about declaring independence.

And here we are! ;)
Back in the day they said the same thing about declaring independence.
Independent from what?
 
Hello fellow posters,

We seem to be straying away from the point of this thread.
It is turning into the thread which used to be available at the top about the two state solution.

I found this thread still available where post 1948 can be discussed. Let us all meet there:



As for self determination for the Arabs pre 1948, we can all discuss the 1937 and 1947 proposals for partition of what was left of the Mandate for Palestine after 78% was given to the Hashemites, and whether the Arab leaders were looking for what was the best for the Arab population or if they were looking for something else.

Were the Arab leaders looking for Justice for the Arabs who lived there at the time, or were they looking for something else altogether?

What happened in 1920, 1921, 1929, 1936 to 1939 and before Israel declared Independence?

How could the Arab leaders have helped the Arab population achieve self determination from 1920 on ?

Did the Arab leaders actions, since 1920, help or hinder the aspirations of two states, one Jewish and one Arab? Was there such an aspiration before May 1948?


Well , what we can be sure of is that , given the lack of crystal balls on the planet , the Arab rejection of a Jewish homeland in Palestine was both understandable and reasonable.

I can't recall a situation when the native population eagerly supported their own dispossession and displacement at the hands on recently arrived immigrants from foreign lands with a completely different culture.

Anyone think of where that has ever happened just to give an exception to the rule ?
FYI, a ton of info.

FYI, a ton of misinformation. The propagandists seem to share your befuddlement about a geographic area. From the “about” section: OUR STATEMENT - 1948

“How was it that one nation, Palestine, which was under the protection of the League of Nations after WW1...”

The Magical Kingdom of Pal’istan was one nation?

When did that happen?
Palestine’s legal position under International Law was clear: The United Kingdom was mandated Palestine in one piece. Article 5 of the Mandate required the Mandatory Power (the UK) to ensure that "no Palestine territory shall be ceded or leased to, or in any way, placed under the control of the government of any foreign power".

During the term of the Mandate for Palestine, that was the case. You failed to notice that the Mandate ended at midnight on 14 May, 1948. The Mandate did not / does not extend in perpetuity.

Cutting and pasting a snippet from a blog without understanding the greater context (or intending to mislead about that context), is a failed argument.

When the Mandate ended, there were no lingering requirements that survived the ending of the Mandate.
When the Mandate ended, there were no lingering requirements that survived the ending of the Mandate.
Statehood, citizenship, and basic rights are preserved by international law without the requirement of a mandate.
You still don’t understand there was no “state of Pally’land” thus no citizenship. The Arabs-Moslems refused any action that would have allowed them participation in self-determination. No one denied any rights to the Arabs-Moslems.

You spend your every waking moment blaming others for your failures.
there was no “state of Pally’land” thus no citizenship.
More unsubstantiated Israeli talking points.
It's a reality, not a talking point.
Any proof of that?

Of course not.
 
Hello fellow posters,

We seem to be straying away from the point of this thread.
It is turning into the thread which used to be available at the top about the two state solution.

I found this thread still available where post 1948 can be discussed. Let us all meet there:



As for self determination for the Arabs pre 1948, we can all discuss the 1937 and 1947 proposals for partition of what was left of the Mandate for Palestine after 78% was given to the Hashemites, and whether the Arab leaders were looking for what was the best for the Arab population or if they were looking for something else.

Were the Arab leaders looking for Justice for the Arabs who lived there at the time, or were they looking for something else altogether?

What happened in 1920, 1921, 1929, 1936 to 1939 and before Israel declared Independence?

How could the Arab leaders have helped the Arab population achieve self determination from 1920 on ?

Did the Arab leaders actions, since 1920, help or hinder the aspirations of two states, one Jewish and one Arab? Was there such an aspiration before May 1948?


Well , what we can be sure of is that , given the lack of crystal balls on the planet , the Arab rejection of a Jewish homeland in Palestine was both understandable and reasonable.

I can't recall a situation when the native population eagerly supported their own dispossession and displacement at the hands on recently arrived immigrants from foreign lands with a completely different culture.

Anyone think of where that has ever happened just to give an exception to the rule ?
FYI, a ton of info.

FYI, a ton of misinformation. The propagandists seem to share your befuddlement about a geographic area. From the “about” section: OUR STATEMENT - 1948

“How was it that one nation, Palestine, which was under the protection of the League of Nations after WW1...”

The Magical Kingdom of Pal’istan was one nation?

When did that happen?
Palestine’s legal position under International Law was clear: The United Kingdom was mandated Palestine in one piece. Article 5 of the Mandate required the Mandatory Power (the UK) to ensure that "no Palestine territory shall be ceded or leased to, or in any way, placed under the control of the government of any foreign power".

During the term of the Mandate for Palestine, that was the case. You failed to notice that the Mandate ended at midnight on 14 May, 1948. The Mandate did not / does not extend in perpetuity.

Cutting and pasting a snippet from a blog without understanding the greater context (or intending to mislead about that context), is a failed argument.

When the Mandate ended, there were no lingering requirements that survived the ending of the Mandate.
When the Mandate ended, there were no lingering requirements that survived the ending of the Mandate.
Statehood, citizenship, and basic rights are preserved by international law without the requirement of a mandate.
You still don’t understand there was no “state of Pally’land” thus no citizenship. The Arabs-Moslems refused any action that would have allowed them participation in self-determination. No one denied any rights to the Arabs-Moslems.

You spend your every waking moment blaming others for your failures.
there was no “state of Pally’land” thus no citizenship.
More unsubstantiated Israeli talking points.
Your usual slogans.

There was never a “state of pally’land“. It’s really pretty simple.

Now, In anticipating another your usual, slogans: “link?”.

No, there is no link to that which never existed. However, I can certainly show you the error of your juvenile “prove it isn’t” nonsense.

I have proved there was never some imaginary “state of Pal’istan”. Prove I haven’t.

Link?
You always say that when you haven't.
I always say that when I have.
 
Hello fellow posters,

We seem to be straying away from the point of this thread.
It is turning into the thread which used to be available at the top about the two state solution.

I found this thread still available where post 1948 can be discussed. Let us all meet there:



As for self determination for the Arabs pre 1948, we can all discuss the 1937 and 1947 proposals for partition of what was left of the Mandate for Palestine after 78% was given to the Hashemites, and whether the Arab leaders were looking for what was the best for the Arab population or if they were looking for something else.

Were the Arab leaders looking for Justice for the Arabs who lived there at the time, or were they looking for something else altogether?

What happened in 1920, 1921, 1929, 1936 to 1939 and before Israel declared Independence?

How could the Arab leaders have helped the Arab population achieve self determination from 1920 on ?

Did the Arab leaders actions, since 1920, help or hinder the aspirations of two states, one Jewish and one Arab? Was there such an aspiration before May 1948?


Well , what we can be sure of is that , given the lack of crystal balls on the planet , the Arab rejection of a Jewish homeland in Palestine was both understandable and reasonable.

I can't recall a situation when the native population eagerly supported their own dispossession and displacement at the hands on recently arrived immigrants from foreign lands with a completely different culture.

Anyone think of where that has ever happened just to give an exception to the rule ?
FYI, a ton of info.

FYI, a ton of misinformation. The propagandists seem to share your befuddlement about a geographic area. From the “about” section: OUR STATEMENT - 1948

“How was it that one nation, Palestine, which was under the protection of the League of Nations after WW1...”

The Magical Kingdom of Pal’istan was one nation?

When did that happen?
Palestine’s legal position under International Law was clear: The United Kingdom was mandated Palestine in one piece. Article 5 of the Mandate required the Mandatory Power (the UK) to ensure that "no Palestine territory shall be ceded or leased to, or in any way, placed under the control of the government of any foreign power".

During the term of the Mandate for Palestine, that was the case. You failed to notice that the Mandate ended at midnight on 14 May, 1948. The Mandate did not / does not extend in perpetuity.

Cutting and pasting a snippet from a blog without understanding the greater context (or intending to mislead about that context), is a failed argument.

When the Mandate ended, there were no lingering requirements that survived the ending of the Mandate.
When the Mandate ended, there were no lingering requirements that survived the ending of the Mandate.
Statehood, citizenship, and basic rights are preserved by international law without the requirement of a mandate.
You still don’t understand there was no “state of Pally’land” thus no citizenship. The Arabs-Moslems refused any action that would have allowed them participation in self-determination. No one denied any rights to the Arabs-Moslems.

You spend your every waking moment blaming others for your failures.
there was no “state of Pally’land” thus no citizenship.
More unsubstantiated Israeli talking points.
Your usual slogans.

There was never a “state of pally’land“. It’s really pretty simple.

Now, In anticipating another your usual, slogans: “link?”.

No, there is no link to that which never existed. However, I can certainly show you the error of your juvenile “prove it isn’t” nonsense.

I have proved there was never some imaginary “state of Pal’istan”. Prove I haven’t.

Link?
There was never a “state of pally’land“. It’s really pretty simple.
Prove it or it is just another Israeli lie.

I did prove it. Disprove it.

Link?
 

This is the only one I have found.

We have passed that threshold.
Only one state - Israel.
No options.

You'll see.


And the obvious civil rights movement that could end the Zionist dream altogether or at least scupper its democratic status
What civil rights are to be expected from Islamist sharia?

Hamas has a civil rights handbook entitled “Hamas Charter”. What civil rights are to be extended to Jews and non-islamists in Gaza?

Are the Islamist gee-had riots at the Israeli border an example of the Islamist civil rights movement?
 
Hello fellow posters,

We seem to be straying away from the point of this thread.
It is turning into the thread which used to be available at the top about the two state solution.

I found this thread still available where post 1948 can be discussed. Let us all meet there:



As for self determination for the Arabs pre 1948, we can all discuss the 1937 and 1947 proposals for partition of what was left of the Mandate for Palestine after 78% was given to the Hashemites, and whether the Arab leaders were looking for what was the best for the Arab population or if they were looking for something else.

Were the Arab leaders looking for Justice for the Arabs who lived there at the time, or were they looking for something else altogether?

What happened in 1920, 1921, 1929, 1936 to 1939 and before Israel declared Independence?

How could the Arab leaders have helped the Arab population achieve self determination from 1920 on ?

Did the Arab leaders actions, since 1920, help or hinder the aspirations of two states, one Jewish and one Arab? Was there such an aspiration before May 1948?


Well , what we can be sure of is that , given the lack of crystal balls on the planet , the Arab rejection of a Jewish homeland in Palestine was both understandable and reasonable.

I can't recall a situation when the native population eagerly supported their own dispossession and displacement at the hands on recently arrived immigrants from foreign lands with a completely different culture.

Anyone think of where that has ever happened just to give an exception to the rule ?
FYI, a ton of info.

FYI, a ton of misinformation. The propagandists seem to share your befuddlement about a geographic area. From the “about” section: OUR STATEMENT - 1948

“How was it that one nation, Palestine, which was under the protection of the League of Nations after WW1...”

The Magical Kingdom of Pal’istan was one nation?

When did that happen?
Palestine’s legal position under International Law was clear: The United Kingdom was mandated Palestine in one piece. Article 5 of the Mandate required the Mandatory Power (the UK) to ensure that "no Palestine territory shall be ceded or leased to, or in any way, placed under the control of the government of any foreign power".

During the term of the Mandate for Palestine, that was the case. You failed to notice that the Mandate ended at midnight on 14 May, 1948. The Mandate did not / does not extend in perpetuity.

Cutting and pasting a snippet from a blog without understanding the greater context (or intending to mislead about that context), is a failed argument.

When the Mandate ended, there were no lingering requirements that survived the ending of the Mandate.
When the Mandate ended, there were no lingering requirements that survived the ending of the Mandate.
Statehood, citizenship, and basic rights are preserved by international law without the requirement of a mandate.
You still don’t understand there was no “state of Pally’land” thus no citizenship. The Arabs-Moslems refused any action that would have allowed them participation in self-determination. No one denied any rights to the Arabs-Moslems.

You spend your every waking moment blaming others for your failures.
there was no “state of Pally’land” thus no citizenship.
More unsubstantiated Israeli talking points.
It's a reality, not a talking point.
Any proof of that?

Of course not.
There was never a Palestinian state. They didn't have borders or Palestinian government or a Palestinian flag until the 1930's.
 
And the obvious civil rights movement that could end the Zionist dream altogether or at least scupper its democratic status



Yes, you wish to destroy Israel in order to usher in those who have been indoctrinated from cradle to grave with the singular desire to murder Jews.

That you think this is somehow a right speaks much of the degree of your antisemitismn.
 
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