- Dec 6, 2009
- Reaction score
Why are you blabbering on about something you can't prove?There was never a Palestinian state. They didn't have borders or Palestinian government or a Palestinian flag until the 1930's.Any proof of that?It's a reality, not a talking point.You still don’t understand there was no “state of Pally’land” thus no citizenship. The Arabs-Moslems refused any action that would have allowed them participation in self-determination. No one denied any rights to the Arabs-Moslems.During the term of the Mandate for Palestine, that was the case. You failed to notice that the Mandate ended at midnight on 14 May, 1948. The Mandate did not / does not extend in perpetuity.Palestine’s legal position under International Law was clear: The United Kingdom was mandated Palestine in one piece. Article 5 of the Mandate required the Mandatory Power (the UK) to ensure that "no Palestine territory shall be ceded or leased to, or in any way, placed under the control of the government of any foreign power".FYI, a ton of misinformation. The propagandists seem to share your befuddlement about a geographic area. From the “about” section: OUR STATEMENT - 1948FYI, a ton of info.Hello fellow posters,
We seem to be straying away from the point of this thread.
It is turning into the thread which used to be available at the top about the two state solution.
I found this thread still available where post 1948 can be discussed. Let us all meet there:
A clear majority of Palestinians in the West Bank and the Gaza Strip oppose a two-state solution to end their struggle with Israel, according to a poll released on Wednesday. Sixty percent of those polled, including 55% in the West Bank and 68% in Gaza, reject permanently accepting Israel’s...www.usmessageboard.com
As for self determination for the Arabs pre 1948, we can all discuss the 1937 and 1947 proposals for partition of what was left of the Mandate for Palestine after 78% was given to the Hashemites, and whether the Arab leaders were looking for what was the best for the Arab population or if they were looking for something else.
Were the Arab leaders looking for Justice for the Arabs who lived there at the time, or were they looking for something else altogether?
What happened in 1920, 1921, 1929, 1936 to 1939 and before Israel declared Independence?
How could the Arab leaders have helped the Arab population achieve self determination from 1920 on ?
Did the Arab leaders actions, since 1920, help or hinder the aspirations of two states, one Jewish and one Arab? Was there such an aspiration before May 1948?
Well , what we can be sure of is that , given the lack of crystal balls on the planet , the Arab rejection of a Jewish homeland in Palestine was both understandable and reasonable.
I can't recall a situation when the native population eagerly supported their own dispossession and displacement at the hands on recently arrived immigrants from foreign lands with a completely different culture.
Anyone think of where that has ever happened just to give an exception to the rule ?
“How was it that one nation, Palestine, which was under the protection of the League of Nations after WW1...”
The Magical Kingdom of Pal’istan was one nation?
When did that happen?
Cutting and pasting a snippet from a blog without understanding the greater context (or intending to mislead about that context), is a failed argument.
When the Mandate ended, there were no lingering requirements that survived the ending of the Mandate.Statehood, citizenship, and basic rights are preserved by international law without the requirement of a mandate.When the Mandate ended, there were no lingering requirements that survived the ending of the Mandate.
You spend your every waking moment blaming others for your failures.More unsubstantiated Israeli talking points.there was no “state of Pally’land” thus no citizenship.
Of course not.