The NEWER Official Discussion Thread for the creation of Israel, the UN and the British Mandate

P F Tinmore

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Hello fellow posters,

We seem to be straying away from the point of this thread.
It is turning into the thread which used to be available at the top about the two state solution.

I found this thread still available where post 1948 can be discussed. Let us all meet there:



As for self determination for the Arabs pre 1948, we can all discuss the 1937 and 1947 proposals for partition of what was left of the Mandate for Palestine after 78% was given to the Hashemites, and whether the Arab leaders were looking for what was the best for the Arab population or if they were looking for something else.

Were the Arab leaders looking for Justice for the Arabs who lived there at the time, or were they looking for something else altogether?

What happened in 1920, 1921, 1929, 1936 to 1939 and before Israel declared Independence?

How could the Arab leaders have helped the Arab population achieve self determination from 1920 on ?

Did the Arab leaders actions, since 1920, help or hinder the aspirations of two states, one Jewish and one Arab? Was there such an aspiration before May 1948?

Well , what we can be sure of is that , given the lack of crystal balls on the planet , the Arab rejection of a Jewish homeland in Palestine was both understandable and reasonable.

I can't recall a situation when the native population eagerly supported their own dispossession and displacement at the hands on recently arrived immigrants from foreign lands with a completely different culture.

Anyone think of where that has ever happened just to give an exception to the rule ?
FYI, a ton of info.

FYI, a ton of misinformation. The propagandists seem to share your befuddlement about a geographic area. From the “about” section: OUR STATEMENT - 1948

“How was it that one nation, Palestine, which was under the protection of the League of Nations after WW1...”

The Magical Kingdom of Pal’istan was one nation?

When did that happen?
Palestine’s legal position under International Law was clear: The United Kingdom was mandated Palestine in one piece. Article 5 of the Mandate required the Mandatory Power (the UK) to ensure that "no Palestine territory shall be ceded or leased to, or in any way, placed under the control of the government of any foreign power".

During the term of the Mandate for Palestine, that was the case. You failed to notice that the Mandate ended at midnight on 14 May, 1948. The Mandate did not / does not extend in perpetuity.

Cutting and pasting a snippet from a blog without understanding the greater context (or intending to mislead about that context), is a failed argument.

When the Mandate ended, there were no lingering requirements that survived the ending of the Mandate.
When the Mandate ended, there were no lingering requirements that survived the ending of the Mandate.
Statehood, citizenship, and basic rights are preserved by international law without the requirement of a mandate.
You still don’t understand there was no “state of Pally’land” thus no citizenship. The Arabs-Moslems refused any action that would have allowed them participation in self-determination. No one denied any rights to the Arabs-Moslems.

You spend your every waking moment blaming others for your failures.
there was no “state of Pally’land” thus no citizenship.
More unsubstantiated Israeli talking points.
It's a reality, not a talking point.
Any proof of that?

Of course not.
There was never a Palestinian state. They didn't have borders or Palestinian government or a Palestinian flag until the 1930's.
Why are you blabbering on about something you can't prove?
 

rylah

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Hello fellow posters,

We seem to be straying away from the point of this thread.
It is turning into the thread which used to be available at the top about the two state solution.

I found this thread still available where post 1948 can be discussed. Let us all meet there:



As for self determination for the Arabs pre 1948, we can all discuss the 1937 and 1947 proposals for partition of what was left of the Mandate for Palestine after 78% was given to the Hashemites, and whether the Arab leaders were looking for what was the best for the Arab population or if they were looking for something else.

Were the Arab leaders looking for Justice for the Arabs who lived there at the time, or were they looking for something else altogether?

What happened in 1920, 1921, 1929, 1936 to 1939 and before Israel declared Independence?

How could the Arab leaders have helped the Arab population achieve self determination from 1920 on ?

Did the Arab leaders actions, since 1920, help or hinder the aspirations of two states, one Jewish and one Arab? Was there such an aspiration before May 1948?

Well , what we can be sure of is that , given the lack of crystal balls on the planet , the Arab rejection of a Jewish homeland in Palestine was both understandable and reasonable.

I can't recall a situation when the native population eagerly supported their own dispossession and displacement at the hands on recently arrived immigrants from foreign lands with a completely different culture.

Anyone think of where that has ever happened just to give an exception to the rule ?
FYI, a ton of info.

FYI, a ton of misinformation. The propagandists seem to share your befuddlement about a geographic area. From the “about” section: OUR STATEMENT - 1948

“How was it that one nation, Palestine, which was under the protection of the League of Nations after WW1...”

The Magical Kingdom of Pal’istan was one nation?

When did that happen?
Palestine’s legal position under International Law was clear: The United Kingdom was mandated Palestine in one piece. Article 5 of the Mandate required the Mandatory Power (the UK) to ensure that "no Palestine territory shall be ceded or leased to, or in any way, placed under the control of the government of any foreign power".

During the term of the Mandate for Palestine, that was the case. You failed to notice that the Mandate ended at midnight on 14 May, 1948. The Mandate did not / does not extend in perpetuity.

Cutting and pasting a snippet from a blog without understanding the greater context (or intending to mislead about that context), is a failed argument.

When the Mandate ended, there were no lingering requirements that survived the ending of the Mandate.
When the Mandate ended, there were no lingering requirements that survived the ending of the Mandate.
Statehood, citizenship, and basic rights are preserved by international law without the requirement of a mandate.
You still don’t understand there was no “state of Pally’land” thus no citizenship. The Arabs-Moslems refused any action that would have allowed them participation in self-determination. No one denied any rights to the Arabs-Moslems.

You spend your every waking moment blaming others for your failures.
there was no “state of Pally’land” thus no citizenship.
More unsubstantiated Israeli talking points.
It's a reality, not a talking point.
Any proof of that?

Of course not.
There was never a Palestinian state. They didn't have borders or Palestinian government or a Palestinian flag until the 1930's.
Why are you blabbering on about something you can't prove?
Usual whining by a (im)poster who can't refute a thing.
 
Last edited:

Toddsterpatriot

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Hello fellow posters,

We seem to be straying away from the point of this thread.
It is turning into the thread which used to be available at the top about the two state solution.

I found this thread still available where post 1948 can be discussed. Let us all meet there:



As for self determination for the Arabs pre 1948, we can all discuss the 1937 and 1947 proposals for partition of what was left of the Mandate for Palestine after 78% was given to the Hashemites, and whether the Arab leaders were looking for what was the best for the Arab population or if they were looking for something else.

Were the Arab leaders looking for Justice for the Arabs who lived there at the time, or were they looking for something else altogether?

What happened in 1920, 1921, 1929, 1936 to 1939 and before Israel declared Independence?

How could the Arab leaders have helped the Arab population achieve self determination from 1920 on ?

Did the Arab leaders actions, since 1920, help or hinder the aspirations of two states, one Jewish and one Arab? Was there such an aspiration before May 1948?

Well , what we can be sure of is that , given the lack of crystal balls on the planet , the Arab rejection of a Jewish homeland in Palestine was both understandable and reasonable.

I can't recall a situation when the native population eagerly supported their own dispossession and displacement at the hands on recently arrived immigrants from foreign lands with a completely different culture.

Anyone think of where that has ever happened just to give an exception to the rule ?
FYI, a ton of info.

FYI, a ton of misinformation. The propagandists seem to share your befuddlement about a geographic area. From the “about” section: OUR STATEMENT - 1948

“How was it that one nation, Palestine, which was under the protection of the League of Nations after WW1...”

The Magical Kingdom of Pal’istan was one nation?

When did that happen?
Palestine’s legal position under International Law was clear: The United Kingdom was mandated Palestine in one piece. Article 5 of the Mandate required the Mandatory Power (the UK) to ensure that "no Palestine territory shall be ceded or leased to, or in any way, placed under the control of the government of any foreign power".

During the term of the Mandate for Palestine, that was the case. You failed to notice that the Mandate ended at midnight on 14 May, 1948. The Mandate did not / does not extend in perpetuity.

Cutting and pasting a snippet from a blog without understanding the greater context (or intending to mislead about that context), is a failed argument.

When the Mandate ended, there were no lingering requirements that survived the ending of the Mandate.
When the Mandate ended, there were no lingering requirements that survived the ending of the Mandate.
Statehood, citizenship, and basic rights are preserved by international law without the requirement of a mandate.
You still don’t understand there was no “state of Pally’land” thus no citizenship. The Arabs-Moslems refused any action that would have allowed them participation in self-determination. No one denied any rights to the Arabs-Moslems.

You spend your every waking moment blaming others for your failures.
there was no “state of Pally’land” thus no citizenship.
More unsubstantiated Israeli talking points.
It's a reality, not a talking point.
Any proof of that?

Of course not.
There was never a Palestinian state. They didn't have borders or Palestinian government or a Palestinian flag until the 1930's.
Why are you blabbering on about something you can't prove?
You're free to disprove his claim...….
 

P F Tinmore

Diamond Member
Joined
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Messages
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Hello fellow posters,

We seem to be straying away from the point of this thread.
It is turning into the thread which used to be available at the top about the two state solution.

I found this thread still available where post 1948 can be discussed. Let us all meet there:



As for self determination for the Arabs pre 1948, we can all discuss the 1937 and 1947 proposals for partition of what was left of the Mandate for Palestine after 78% was given to the Hashemites, and whether the Arab leaders were looking for what was the best for the Arab population or if they were looking for something else.

Were the Arab leaders looking for Justice for the Arabs who lived there at the time, or were they looking for something else altogether?

What happened in 1920, 1921, 1929, 1936 to 1939 and before Israel declared Independence?

How could the Arab leaders have helped the Arab population achieve self determination from 1920 on ?

Did the Arab leaders actions, since 1920, help or hinder the aspirations of two states, one Jewish and one Arab? Was there such an aspiration before May 1948?

Well , what we can be sure of is that , given the lack of crystal balls on the planet , the Arab rejection of a Jewish homeland in Palestine was both understandable and reasonable.

I can't recall a situation when the native population eagerly supported their own dispossession and displacement at the hands on recently arrived immigrants from foreign lands with a completely different culture.

Anyone think of where that has ever happened just to give an exception to the rule ?
FYI, a ton of info.

FYI, a ton of misinformation. The propagandists seem to share your befuddlement about a geographic area. From the “about” section: OUR STATEMENT - 1948

“How was it that one nation, Palestine, which was under the protection of the League of Nations after WW1...”

The Magical Kingdom of Pal’istan was one nation?

When did that happen?
Palestine’s legal position under International Law was clear: The United Kingdom was mandated Palestine in one piece. Article 5 of the Mandate required the Mandatory Power (the UK) to ensure that "no Palestine territory shall be ceded or leased to, or in any way, placed under the control of the government of any foreign power".

During the term of the Mandate for Palestine, that was the case. You failed to notice that the Mandate ended at midnight on 14 May, 1948. The Mandate did not / does not extend in perpetuity.

Cutting and pasting a snippet from a blog without understanding the greater context (or intending to mislead about that context), is a failed argument.

When the Mandate ended, there were no lingering requirements that survived the ending of the Mandate.
When the Mandate ended, there were no lingering requirements that survived the ending of the Mandate.
Statehood, citizenship, and basic rights are preserved by international law without the requirement of a mandate.
You still don’t understand there was no “state of Pally’land” thus no citizenship. The Arabs-Moslems refused any action that would have allowed them participation in self-determination. No one denied any rights to the Arabs-Moslems.

You spend your every waking moment blaming others for your failures.
there was no “state of Pally’land” thus no citizenship.
More unsubstantiated Israeli talking points.
It's a reality, not a talking point.
Any proof of that?

Of course not.
There was never a Palestinian state. They didn't have borders or Palestinian government or a Palestinian flag until the 1930's.
Why are you blabbering on about something you can't prove?
You're free to disprove his claim...….
Disproved many times but Zionists are slow learners.
 

Toddsterpatriot

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Joined
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Hello fellow posters,

We seem to be straying away from the point of this thread.
It is turning into the thread which used to be available at the top about the two state solution.

I found this thread still available where post 1948 can be discussed. Let us all meet there:



As for self determination for the Arabs pre 1948, we can all discuss the 1937 and 1947 proposals for partition of what was left of the Mandate for Palestine after 78% was given to the Hashemites, and whether the Arab leaders were looking for what was the best for the Arab population or if they were looking for something else.

Were the Arab leaders looking for Justice for the Arabs who lived there at the time, or were they looking for something else altogether?

What happened in 1920, 1921, 1929, 1936 to 1939 and before Israel declared Independence?

How could the Arab leaders have helped the Arab population achieve self determination from 1920 on ?

Did the Arab leaders actions, since 1920, help or hinder the aspirations of two states, one Jewish and one Arab? Was there such an aspiration before May 1948?

Well , what we can be sure of is that , given the lack of crystal balls on the planet , the Arab rejection of a Jewish homeland in Palestine was both understandable and reasonable.

I can't recall a situation when the native population eagerly supported their own dispossession and displacement at the hands on recently arrived immigrants from foreign lands with a completely different culture.

Anyone think of where that has ever happened just to give an exception to the rule ?
FYI, a ton of info.

FYI, a ton of misinformation. The propagandists seem to share your befuddlement about a geographic area. From the “about” section: OUR STATEMENT - 1948

“How was it that one nation, Palestine, which was under the protection of the League of Nations after WW1...”

The Magical Kingdom of Pal’istan was one nation?

When did that happen?
Palestine’s legal position under International Law was clear: The United Kingdom was mandated Palestine in one piece. Article 5 of the Mandate required the Mandatory Power (the UK) to ensure that "no Palestine territory shall be ceded or leased to, or in any way, placed under the control of the government of any foreign power".

During the term of the Mandate for Palestine, that was the case. You failed to notice that the Mandate ended at midnight on 14 May, 1948. The Mandate did not / does not extend in perpetuity.

Cutting and pasting a snippet from a blog without understanding the greater context (or intending to mislead about that context), is a failed argument.

When the Mandate ended, there were no lingering requirements that survived the ending of the Mandate.
When the Mandate ended, there were no lingering requirements that survived the ending of the Mandate.
Statehood, citizenship, and basic rights are preserved by international law without the requirement of a mandate.
You still don’t understand there was no “state of Pally’land” thus no citizenship. The Arabs-Moslems refused any action that would have allowed them participation in self-determination. No one denied any rights to the Arabs-Moslems.

You spend your every waking moment blaming others for your failures.
there was no “state of Pally’land” thus no citizenship.
More unsubstantiated Israeli talking points.
It's a reality, not a talking point.
Any proof of that?

Of course not.
There was never a Palestinian state. They didn't have borders or Palestinian government or a Palestinian flag until the 1930's.
Why are you blabbering on about something you can't prove?
You're free to disprove his claim...….
Disproved many times but Zionists are slow learners.
You disproved "There was never a Palestinian state. They didn't have borders or Palestinian government or a Palestinian flag until the 1930's"

Cool!

When was there a Palestinian state? When did it have borders or a Palestinian government or a Palestinian flag before the 1930's?
 

P F Tinmore

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Hello fellow posters,

We seem to be straying away from the point of this thread.
It is turning into the thread which used to be available at the top about the two state solution.

I found this thread still available where post 1948 can be discussed. Let us all meet there:



As for self determination for the Arabs pre 1948, we can all discuss the 1937 and 1947 proposals for partition of what was left of the Mandate for Palestine after 78% was given to the Hashemites, and whether the Arab leaders were looking for what was the best for the Arab population or if they were looking for something else.

Were the Arab leaders looking for Justice for the Arabs who lived there at the time, or were they looking for something else altogether?

What happened in 1920, 1921, 1929, 1936 to 1939 and before Israel declared Independence?

How could the Arab leaders have helped the Arab population achieve self determination from 1920 on ?

Did the Arab leaders actions, since 1920, help or hinder the aspirations of two states, one Jewish and one Arab? Was there such an aspiration before May 1948?

Well , what we can be sure of is that , given the lack of crystal balls on the planet , the Arab rejection of a Jewish homeland in Palestine was both understandable and reasonable.

I can't recall a situation when the native population eagerly supported their own dispossession and displacement at the hands on recently arrived immigrants from foreign lands with a completely different culture.

Anyone think of where that has ever happened just to give an exception to the rule ?
FYI, a ton of info.

FYI, a ton of misinformation. The propagandists seem to share your befuddlement about a geographic area. From the “about” section: OUR STATEMENT - 1948

“How was it that one nation, Palestine, which was under the protection of the League of Nations after WW1...”

The Magical Kingdom of Pal’istan was one nation?

When did that happen?
Palestine’s legal position under International Law was clear: The United Kingdom was mandated Palestine in one piece. Article 5 of the Mandate required the Mandatory Power (the UK) to ensure that "no Palestine territory shall be ceded or leased to, or in any way, placed under the control of the government of any foreign power".

During the term of the Mandate for Palestine, that was the case. You failed to notice that the Mandate ended at midnight on 14 May, 1948. The Mandate did not / does not extend in perpetuity.

Cutting and pasting a snippet from a blog without understanding the greater context (or intending to mislead about that context), is a failed argument.

When the Mandate ended, there were no lingering requirements that survived the ending of the Mandate.
When the Mandate ended, there were no lingering requirements that survived the ending of the Mandate.
Statehood, citizenship, and basic rights are preserved by international law without the requirement of a mandate.
You still don’t understand there was no “state of Pally’land” thus no citizenship. The Arabs-Moslems refused any action that would have allowed them participation in self-determination. No one denied any rights to the Arabs-Moslems.

You spend your every waking moment blaming others for your failures.
there was no “state of Pally’land” thus no citizenship.
More unsubstantiated Israeli talking points.
It's a reality, not a talking point.
Any proof of that?

Of course not.
There was never a Palestinian state. They didn't have borders or Palestinian government or a Palestinian flag until the 1930's.
Why are you blabbering on about something you can't prove?
You're free to disprove his claim...….
Disproved many times but Zionists are slow learners.
You disproved "There was never a Palestinian state. They didn't have borders or Palestinian government or a Palestinian flag until the 1930's"

Cool!

When was there a Palestinian state? When did it have borders or a Palestinian government or a Palestinian flag before the 1930's?
A government is the product if self determination not a prerequisite
 

Toddsterpatriot

Diamond Member
Joined
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Messages
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Hello fellow posters,

We seem to be straying away from the point of this thread.
It is turning into the thread which used to be available at the top about the two state solution.

I found this thread still available where post 1948 can be discussed. Let us all meet there:



As for self determination for the Arabs pre 1948, we can all discuss the 1937 and 1947 proposals for partition of what was left of the Mandate for Palestine after 78% was given to the Hashemites, and whether the Arab leaders were looking for what was the best for the Arab population or if they were looking for something else.

Were the Arab leaders looking for Justice for the Arabs who lived there at the time, or were they looking for something else altogether?

What happened in 1920, 1921, 1929, 1936 to 1939 and before Israel declared Independence?

How could the Arab leaders have helped the Arab population achieve self determination from 1920 on ?

Did the Arab leaders actions, since 1920, help or hinder the aspirations of two states, one Jewish and one Arab? Was there such an aspiration before May 1948?

Well , what we can be sure of is that , given the lack of crystal balls on the planet , the Arab rejection of a Jewish homeland in Palestine was both understandable and reasonable.

I can't recall a situation when the native population eagerly supported their own dispossession and displacement at the hands on recently arrived immigrants from foreign lands with a completely different culture.

Anyone think of where that has ever happened just to give an exception to the rule ?
FYI, a ton of info.

FYI, a ton of misinformation. The propagandists seem to share your befuddlement about a geographic area. From the “about” section: OUR STATEMENT - 1948

“How was it that one nation, Palestine, which was under the protection of the League of Nations after WW1...”

The Magical Kingdom of Pal’istan was one nation?

When did that happen?
Palestine’s legal position under International Law was clear: The United Kingdom was mandated Palestine in one piece. Article 5 of the Mandate required the Mandatory Power (the UK) to ensure that "no Palestine territory shall be ceded or leased to, or in any way, placed under the control of the government of any foreign power".

During the term of the Mandate for Palestine, that was the case. You failed to notice that the Mandate ended at midnight on 14 May, 1948. The Mandate did not / does not extend in perpetuity.

Cutting and pasting a snippet from a blog without understanding the greater context (or intending to mislead about that context), is a failed argument.

When the Mandate ended, there were no lingering requirements that survived the ending of the Mandate.
When the Mandate ended, there were no lingering requirements that survived the ending of the Mandate.
Statehood, citizenship, and basic rights are preserved by international law without the requirement of a mandate.
You still don’t understand there was no “state of Pally’land” thus no citizenship. The Arabs-Moslems refused any action that would have allowed them participation in self-determination. No one denied any rights to the Arabs-Moslems.

You spend your every waking moment blaming others for your failures.
there was no “state of Pally’land” thus no citizenship.
More unsubstantiated Israeli talking points.
It's a reality, not a talking point.
Any proof of that?

Of course not.
There was never a Palestinian state. They didn't have borders or Palestinian government or a Palestinian flag until the 1930's.
Why are you blabbering on about something you can't prove?
You're free to disprove his claim...….
Disproved many times but Zionists are slow learners.
You disproved "There was never a Palestinian state. They didn't have borders or Palestinian government or a Palestinian flag until the 1930's"

Cool!

When was there a Palestinian state? When did it have borders or a Palestinian government or a Palestinian flag before the 1930's?
A government is the product if self determination not a prerequisite
There was never a Palestinian state. They didn't have borders or Palestinian government or a Palestinian flag until the 1930's.
 

Sixties Fan

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The flag of Jordan, officially adopted on 18 April 1928, is based on the 1917 flag of the Arab Revolt against the Ottoman Empire during World War I. The flag consists of horizontal black, white, and green bands that are connected by a red chevron. Wikipedia

Use: State flag, Civil ensign, Civil flag, State ensign
Adopted on: April 18, 1928


The Palestinian flag is a tricolor of three equal horizontal stripes overlaid by a red triangle issuing from the hoist. This flag is derived from the Pan-Arab colors and is used to represent the State of Palestine and the Palestinian people.Wikipedia

Adopted: 28 May 1964 (PLO)
 

P F Tinmore

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Hello fellow posters,

We seem to be straying away from the point of this thread.
It is turning into the thread which used to be available at the top about the two state solution.

I found this thread still available where post 1948 can be discussed. Let us all meet there:



As for self determination for the Arabs pre 1948, we can all discuss the 1937 and 1947 proposals for partition of what was left of the Mandate for Palestine after 78% was given to the Hashemites, and whether the Arab leaders were looking for what was the best for the Arab population or if they were looking for something else.

Were the Arab leaders looking for Justice for the Arabs who lived there at the time, or were they looking for something else altogether?

What happened in 1920, 1921, 1929, 1936 to 1939 and before Israel declared Independence?

How could the Arab leaders have helped the Arab population achieve self determination from 1920 on ?

Did the Arab leaders actions, since 1920, help or hinder the aspirations of two states, one Jewish and one Arab? Was there such an aspiration before May 1948?

Well , what we can be sure of is that , given the lack of crystal balls on the planet , the Arab rejection of a Jewish homeland in Palestine was both understandable and reasonable.

I can't recall a situation when the native population eagerly supported their own dispossession and displacement at the hands on recently arrived immigrants from foreign lands with a completely different culture.

Anyone think of where that has ever happened just to give an exception to the rule ?
FYI, a ton of info.

FYI, a ton of misinformation. The propagandists seem to share your befuddlement about a geographic area. From the “about” section: OUR STATEMENT - 1948

“How was it that one nation, Palestine, which was under the protection of the League of Nations after WW1...”

The Magical Kingdom of Pal’istan was one nation?

When did that happen?
Palestine’s legal position under International Law was clear: The United Kingdom was mandated Palestine in one piece. Article 5 of the Mandate required the Mandatory Power (the UK) to ensure that "no Palestine territory shall be ceded or leased to, or in any way, placed under the control of the government of any foreign power".

During the term of the Mandate for Palestine, that was the case. You failed to notice that the Mandate ended at midnight on 14 May, 1948. The Mandate did not / does not extend in perpetuity.

Cutting and pasting a snippet from a blog without understanding the greater context (or intending to mislead about that context), is a failed argument.

When the Mandate ended, there were no lingering requirements that survived the ending of the Mandate.
When the Mandate ended, there were no lingering requirements that survived the ending of the Mandate.
Statehood, citizenship, and basic rights are preserved by international law without the requirement of a mandate.
You still don’t understand there was no “state of Pally’land” thus no citizenship. The Arabs-Moslems refused any action that would have allowed them participation in self-determination. No one denied any rights to the Arabs-Moslems.

You spend your every waking moment blaming others for your failures.
there was no “state of Pally’land” thus no citizenship.
More unsubstantiated Israeli talking points.
It's a reality, not a talking point.
Any proof of that?

Of course not.
There was never a Palestinian state. They didn't have borders or Palestinian government or a Palestinian flag until the 1930's.
Why are you blabbering on about something you can't prove?
You're free to disprove his claim...….
Disproved many times but Zionists are slow learners.
You disproved "There was never a Palestinian state. They didn't have borders or Palestinian government or a Palestinian flag until the 1930's"

Cool!

When was there a Palestinian state? When did it have borders or a Palestinian government or a Palestinian flag before the 1930's?
A government is the product if self determination not a prerequisite
There was never a Palestinian state. They didn't have borders or Palestinian government or a Palestinian flag until the 1930's.
More blabber, no proof.
 

Hollie

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Hello fellow posters,

We seem to be straying away from the point of this thread.
It is turning into the thread which used to be available at the top about the two state solution.

I found this thread still available where post 1948 can be discussed. Let us all meet there:



As for self determination for the Arabs pre 1948, we can all discuss the 1937 and 1947 proposals for partition of what was left of the Mandate for Palestine after 78% was given to the Hashemites, and whether the Arab leaders were looking for what was the best for the Arab population or if they were looking for something else.

Were the Arab leaders looking for Justice for the Arabs who lived there at the time, or were they looking for something else altogether?

What happened in 1920, 1921, 1929, 1936 to 1939 and before Israel declared Independence?

How could the Arab leaders have helped the Arab population achieve self determination from 1920 on ?

Did the Arab leaders actions, since 1920, help or hinder the aspirations of two states, one Jewish and one Arab? Was there such an aspiration before May 1948?

Well , what we can be sure of is that , given the lack of crystal balls on the planet , the Arab rejection of a Jewish homeland in Palestine was both understandable and reasonable.

I can't recall a situation when the native population eagerly supported their own dispossession and displacement at the hands on recently arrived immigrants from foreign lands with a completely different culture.

Anyone think of where that has ever happened just to give an exception to the rule ?
FYI, a ton of info.

FYI, a ton of misinformation. The propagandists seem to share your befuddlement about a geographic area. From the “about” section: OUR STATEMENT - 1948

“How was it that one nation, Palestine, which was under the protection of the League of Nations after WW1...”

The Magical Kingdom of Pal’istan was one nation?

When did that happen?
Palestine’s legal position under International Law was clear: The United Kingdom was mandated Palestine in one piece. Article 5 of the Mandate required the Mandatory Power (the UK) to ensure that "no Palestine territory shall be ceded or leased to, or in any way, placed under the control of the government of any foreign power".

During the term of the Mandate for Palestine, that was the case. You failed to notice that the Mandate ended at midnight on 14 May, 1948. The Mandate did not / does not extend in perpetuity.

Cutting and pasting a snippet from a blog without understanding the greater context (or intending to mislead about that context), is a failed argument.

When the Mandate ended, there were no lingering requirements that survived the ending of the Mandate.
When the Mandate ended, there were no lingering requirements that survived the ending of the Mandate.
Statehood, citizenship, and basic rights are preserved by international law without the requirement of a mandate.
You still don’t understand there was no “state of Pally’land” thus no citizenship. The Arabs-Moslems refused any action that would have allowed them participation in self-determination. No one denied any rights to the Arabs-Moslems.

You spend your every waking moment blaming others for your failures.
there was no “state of Pally’land” thus no citizenship.
More unsubstantiated Israeli talking points.
It's a reality, not a talking point.
Any proof of that?

Of course not.
There was never a Palestinian state. They didn't have borders or Palestinian government or a Palestinian flag until the 1930's.
Why are you blabbering on about something you can't prove?
You're free to disprove his claim...….
Disproved many times but Zionists are slow learners.
You disproved "There was never a Palestinian state. They didn't have borders or Palestinian government or a Palestinian flag until the 1930's"

Cool!

When was there a Palestinian state? When did it have borders or a Palestinian government or a Palestinian flag before the 1930's?
A government is the product if self determination not a prerequisite
In English please?
 

Toddsterpatriot

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Hello fellow posters,

We seem to be straying away from the point of this thread.
It is turning into the thread which used to be available at the top about the two state solution.

I found this thread still available where post 1948 can be discussed. Let us all meet there:



As for self determination for the Arabs pre 1948, we can all discuss the 1937 and 1947 proposals for partition of what was left of the Mandate for Palestine after 78% was given to the Hashemites, and whether the Arab leaders were looking for what was the best for the Arab population or if they were looking for something else.

Were the Arab leaders looking for Justice for the Arabs who lived there at the time, or were they looking for something else altogether?

What happened in 1920, 1921, 1929, 1936 to 1939 and before Israel declared Independence?

How could the Arab leaders have helped the Arab population achieve self determination from 1920 on ?

Did the Arab leaders actions, since 1920, help or hinder the aspirations of two states, one Jewish and one Arab? Was there such an aspiration before May 1948?

Well , what we can be sure of is that , given the lack of crystal balls on the planet , the Arab rejection of a Jewish homeland in Palestine was both understandable and reasonable.

I can't recall a situation when the native population eagerly supported their own dispossession and displacement at the hands on recently arrived immigrants from foreign lands with a completely different culture.

Anyone think of where that has ever happened just to give an exception to the rule ?
FYI, a ton of info.

FYI, a ton of misinformation. The propagandists seem to share your befuddlement about a geographic area. From the “about” section: OUR STATEMENT - 1948

“How was it that one nation, Palestine, which was under the protection of the League of Nations after WW1...”

The Magical Kingdom of Pal’istan was one nation?

When did that happen?
Palestine’s legal position under International Law was clear: The United Kingdom was mandated Palestine in one piece. Article 5 of the Mandate required the Mandatory Power (the UK) to ensure that "no Palestine territory shall be ceded or leased to, or in any way, placed under the control of the government of any foreign power".

During the term of the Mandate for Palestine, that was the case. You failed to notice that the Mandate ended at midnight on 14 May, 1948. The Mandate did not / does not extend in perpetuity.

Cutting and pasting a snippet from a blog without understanding the greater context (or intending to mislead about that context), is a failed argument.

When the Mandate ended, there were no lingering requirements that survived the ending of the Mandate.
When the Mandate ended, there were no lingering requirements that survived the ending of the Mandate.
Statehood, citizenship, and basic rights are preserved by international law without the requirement of a mandate.
You still don’t understand there was no “state of Pally’land” thus no citizenship. The Arabs-Moslems refused any action that would have allowed them participation in self-determination. No one denied any rights to the Arabs-Moslems.

You spend your every waking moment blaming others for your failures.
there was no “state of Pally’land” thus no citizenship.
More unsubstantiated Israeli talking points.
It's a reality, not a talking point.
Any proof of that?

Of course not.
There was never a Palestinian state. They didn't have borders or Palestinian government or a Palestinian flag until the 1930's.
Why are you blabbering on about something you can't prove?
You're free to disprove his claim...….
Disproved many times but Zionists are slow learners.
You disproved "There was never a Palestinian state. They didn't have borders or Palestinian government or a Palestinian flag until the 1930's"

Cool!

When was there a Palestinian state? When did it have borders or a Palestinian government or a Palestinian flag before the 1930's?
A government is the product if self determination not a prerequisite
There was never a Palestinian state. They didn't have borders or Palestinian government or a Palestinian flag until the 1930's.
More blabber, no proof.
Don't be so hard on yourself.
 

Sixties Fan

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Al-Awda, The "Palestine Right to Return Coalition," has a calendar so people can see what dates are important in Palestinian history as well as the dates for Palestinian holidays.

Month by month, the calendar goes over what happened on specific dates in history.

The earliest date mentioned, and the only one before the 20th century, is this:

1840 Lord Palmerstone, British Foreign Minister-later Prime Minister, sent letter on 11 August, to his Ambassador in Istanbul, to encourage the Sultan to allow and bless the settlement of the European Jews with their wealth in Palestine, to prosper the economy, and to create a barrier against Muhammad Ali’s advancement.
This is Jewish history, not "Palestinian history."

The earliest event that can be remotely considered "Palestinian" is from 1918:

1918 Formation of the Moslem-Christian Committees in Jaffa and Jerusalem, spreading through the different Palestinian cities, in April.
This is after the Balfour Declaration so it is obviously a response to Zionism, not an independent movement.

This 1919 event shows that no one considered themselves Palestinian at that date:
1919 January 27 First Palestinian National Congress. Conference produces first National Charter. Sends two memoranda to Peace Conference, Versailles France, rejecting British mandate, Balfour Declaration, and Zionist immigration to Palestine. Demands full Palestinian independence.Calls for unity of Palestine and Syria and refers to Palestine as Southern Syria. Sends delegation to Damascus in support of Arab Government.
This is not entirely true, no one says that Palestinians demanded independence in the 1919 congress. The final resolution said, “We consider Palestine as part of Arab Syria as it has never been separated from it at any time...we are connected with it by national, religious, linguistic, natural, economic and geographical bonds…in view of the above we desire that our district Southern Syria or Palestine should be not separated from the Independent Arab Syrian Government and be free from all foreign influence and protection…”

Interestingly, one of the earliest events that they believe deserves commemoration is this early cross-border terror attack against Jews:
1920 First Palestinian attacks on Zionist colonies on the Syrian Boarders. (1 March).
So according to the Palestinians themselves, they have no history before the 20th century - in other words, there is no such thing as "historic Palestine" - and they entire movement is a reaction to Zionism and not an organic, independent call for independence.

(full article online)

 

P F Tinmore

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Al-Awda, The "Palestine Right to Return Coalition," has a calendar so people can see what dates are important in Palestinian history as well as the dates for Palestinian holidays.

Month by month, the calendar goes over what happened on specific dates in history.

The earliest date mentioned, and the only one before the 20th century, is this:

1840 Lord Palmerstone, British Foreign Minister-later Prime Minister, sent letter on 11 August, to his Ambassador in Istanbul, to encourage the Sultan to allow and bless the settlement of the European Jews with their wealth in Palestine, to prosper the economy, and to create a barrier against Muhammad Ali’s advancement.
This is Jewish history, not "Palestinian history."

The earliest event that can be remotely considered "Palestinian" is from 1918:

1918 Formation of the Moslem-Christian Committees in Jaffa and Jerusalem, spreading through the different Palestinian cities, in April.
This is after the Balfour Declaration so it is obviously a response to Zionism, not an independent movement.

This 1919 event shows that no one considered themselves Palestinian at that date:
1919 January 27 First Palestinian National Congress. Conference produces first National Charter. Sends two memoranda to Peace Conference, Versailles France, rejecting British mandate, Balfour Declaration, and Zionist immigration to Palestine. Demands full Palestinian independence.Calls for unity of Palestine and Syria and refers to Palestine as Southern Syria. Sends delegation to Damascus in support of Arab Government.
This is not entirely true, no one says that Palestinians demanded independence in the 1919 congress. The final resolution said, “We consider Palestine as part of Arab Syria as it has never been separated from it at any time...we are connected with it by national, religious, linguistic, natural, economic and geographical bonds…in view of the above we desire that our district Southern Syria or Palestine should be not separated from the Independent Arab Syrian Government and be free from all foreign influence and protection…”

Interestingly, one of the earliest events that they believe deserves commemoration is this early cross-border terror attack against Jews:
1920 First Palestinian attacks on Zionist colonies on the Syrian Boarders. (1 March).
So according to the Palestinians themselves, they have no history before the 20th century - in other words, there is no such thing as "historic Palestine" - and they entire movement is a reaction to Zionism and not an organic, independent call for independence.

(full article online)

Interesting that you wiuld attach a people's history to a name.

What were Native Americans called before it was America?

When the name was changed, did that erase their past history?
 

Toddsterpatriot

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Al-Awda, The "Palestine Right to Return Coalition," has a calendar so people can see what dates are important in Palestinian history as well as the dates for Palestinian holidays.

Month by month, the calendar goes over what happened on specific dates in history.

The earliest date mentioned, and the only one before the 20th century, is this:

1840 Lord Palmerstone, British Foreign Minister-later Prime Minister, sent letter on 11 August, to his Ambassador in Istanbul, to encourage the Sultan to allow and bless the settlement of the European Jews with their wealth in Palestine, to prosper the economy, and to create a barrier against Muhammad Ali’s advancement.
This is Jewish history, not "Palestinian history."

The earliest event that can be remotely considered "Palestinian" is from 1918:

1918 Formation of the Moslem-Christian Committees in Jaffa and Jerusalem, spreading through the different Palestinian cities, in April.
This is after the Balfour Declaration so it is obviously a response to Zionism, not an independent movement.

This 1919 event shows that no one considered themselves Palestinian at that date:
1919 January 27 First Palestinian National Congress. Conference produces first National Charter. Sends two memoranda to Peace Conference, Versailles France, rejecting British mandate, Balfour Declaration, and Zionist immigration to Palestine. Demands full Palestinian independence.Calls for unity of Palestine and Syria and refers to Palestine as Southern Syria. Sends delegation to Damascus in support of Arab Government.
This is not entirely true, no one says that Palestinians demanded independence in the 1919 congress. The final resolution said, “We consider Palestine as part of Arab Syria as it has never been separated from it at any time...we are connected with it by national, religious, linguistic, natural, economic and geographical bonds…in view of the above we desire that our district Southern Syria or Palestine should be not separated from the Independent Arab Syrian Government and be free from all foreign influence and protection…”

Interestingly, one of the earliest events that they believe deserves commemoration is this early cross-border terror attack against Jews:
1920 First Palestinian attacks on Zionist colonies on the Syrian Boarders. (1 March).
So according to the Palestinians themselves, they have no history before the 20th century - in other words, there is no such thing as "historic Palestine" - and they entire movement is a reaction to Zionism and not an organic, independent call for independence.

(full article online)

Interesting that you wiuld attach a people's history to a name.

What were Native Americans called before it was America?

When the name was changed, did that erase their past history?
You're right, go back to calling them Arabs.
 

Sixties Fan

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It was 1948, and as the military half-track drove through the Beit Netofa Valley, at the village of Madna in Galilee, shots rang out. One Israeli soldier was killed and another was hit in the head. A sniper had zeroed in on the men and was picking them off one by one.

Then, one of the half-track’s occupants, a tall, sturdy man with blue eyes and brown hair, broke cover from behind the vehicle and went to outflank the gunman. According to one witness, the soldier picked up a heavy stick and crept up behind the sniper, who was still shooting, and promptly bashed his head in.

It wasn’t the first time that Paddy Cooper saw action fighting for Israel. That same year under the hot noon-day sun in the small town of Bayt Jibrin, to the west of the Hebron Hills, a detachment of the Israeli Defence Forces were pinned down by armoured vehicles of the Jordanian Legion.

Paddy inched his way forward with a Piat anti-tank

(full article online)

 

P F Tinmore

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4 Jews Talk About the Palestinian Nakba on Israeli Independence Day

 

Sixties Fan

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The language of the 1917 Balfour Declaration was put directly into the San Remo accords: “[T]he Mandatory should be responsible for putting into effect the declaration originally made on November 2nd, 1917, by the Government of His Britannic Majesty, and adopted by the said Powers, in favour of the establishment in Palestine of a national home for the Jewish people.”

This decision was soon unanimously ratified by 56 member states of the League of Nations, and later became part of the United Nations Charter, thus paving the way for the third Jewish commonwealth, reborn on its ancestral soil after 2000 years.

Yet this momentous occasion, on which the international community recognized and then ratified the inalienable right of the Jewish people to the Land of Israel for the first time in modern history, is often forgotten. Instead, attention is diverted to the radio broadcast of the U.N. vote for Partition on Nov. 29, 1947, where the U.N. General Assembly voted in favor of a resolution adopting the U.N. Special Committee on Palestine (UNSCOP) partition plan of Palestine into Jewish and Arab states and for which 33 states voted in favor, 13 against and 10 abstained.

Legally speaking, the two events cannot be put on the same scale. The San Remo Accords were binding law, ratified by member states, which took quick effect. Even the United States, which was not a member of the League of Nations, took measures to recognize the accords.

Conversely, the UNSCOP Partition Plan was merely a non-binding resolution, voted on in the toothless General Assembly (not the Security Council), and was immediately rejected by the Arabs—in other words, the whole exercise of the partition plan vote was null and void.

(full article online)

 

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