srael was given to the Jews by God. Palestinian Nazis came from Arabia they should go back there.
Um, so if they were God's special people, why does God keep letting them get genocided? God seems like a pretty neglectful pet owner. Someone needs to call the Cosmic SPCA.
Actually, it's a little worse than that. God's relationship with his people mostly seems to be abusive.
I mean, if God actually existed, which thankfully he doesn't.
You sound like an antisemite Nazi. There are Jewish texts on suffering.
Suffering
The word "Semitic" means of an Arab language group.
It does NOT mean Jewish, even though Hebrew is of an Arab language group.
All those who speak any Arab language group natively are Semitic, so Omar and Tlaib are Semitic.
There are several branches of Semitic languages. Jewish Hebrew is one, Arabic is another, Maltese is one, Akkaddian was one, Aramaic was another.
Wrong.
All the branches of the original Arab language group are still part of the Arab language group.
The fact there are more modern branches does not change the original source.
The word Semitic mean of Arab origins and refers to language.
It in no way means Jewish, and certainly not Ashkenazi Jews who speak the Germanic Yiddish as their native language.
Since Hasidic Jews are Arab, they are also Semitic, so you can say that a person how hates Arabs or Hasidic Jews is anti-Semitic, but you can never say an Arab is anti-Semitic, and hating an Askenazi Jew does not make the person anti-Semitic.
wrong again----the word "SEMITIC" does not come close to meaning "ARAB" It refers to a large group of languages emanating from a large area----afro-asiatic.
Your explanation of YIDDISH is even more idiotic. Yiddish is a FUSION of the Indo-european language
HIGH GERMAN and Hebrew. It arose amongst Jews who had migrated to that area during the Roman conquests. Hebrew is a Semitic language. It is not arabic.
Wrong.
The word Semitic ONLY refers to the Arab language group, which includes, Hebrew,
Akkadians,
Phoenicians, Amorites, Canaanites, Chaldeans, etc., as well as more modern Arabs.
And you seem to know even less about Yiddish.
It most certainly is of Germanic origins.
It contains no significant Hebrew at all, and contains far more Slavic than Hebrew.
read my note again----it is entirely correct. "ARAB LANGUAGE GROUP" is not a "thing"
SEMITIC LANGUAGE GROUP is a thing. Try not to tell a chaldean that he is AN ARAB.
That garbage has come and gone with the stench of BAATHISM. Yiddish is written using
the Hebrew alphabet-----it certainly LOOKS LIKE HEBREW ---but its common or profane vocabulary is slavic and german -----words like SHIT AND WHORE AND PIG. More sublime words and concepts are Hebrew
You don't know what an Arab is.
A Chaldean most certainly IS an Arab, and so is a Hebrew.
Semitic means Arab.
It does not mean Arabic, as that is a more modern Arab language.
Arabs came from Africa by way of the Levant, they did not come from the Arabian Peninsula.
Baathism is totally modern 20th century invention and irrelevant.
As for the "Hebrew alphabet", Hebrew historically had no written script at all until around 100 BC, and then essentially the Phoenician script of Aramaic was borrowed. There really is no independent Hebrew alphabet.
{...
The
Hebrew alphabet, known variously by scholars as the
Ktav Ashuri,
Jewish script,
square script and
block script, is an
abjad script used in the writing of the
Hebrew language and other
Jewish languages, most notably
Yiddish,
Judeo-Spanish,
Judeo-Arabic, and
Judeo-Persian. It is an offshoot of the
Imperial Aramaic alphabet, which flourished during the
Achaemenid Empire and which itself derives from the
Phoenician alphabet.
...}
And once again, there can be no doubt that Phoenician and Aramaic are of Arab origins.