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Sure, time changes. people change.
That's nonsense - but I will not explain to you any öonger why it is nonsense what you say. That's senseless.no, it's a design issue. Simplicity and complexity mean nothing of themselves.
The difference in German between genders is due to mixing. There is a lot of Indo-European grammar left in German, because the Germans first came to England and France and only then to the east of Austrasia / Avaria.
This also can be seen from the fact that Indo-European root-inflections in German still remain a full-fledged form, while in New English and New French they are only in the table of irregular verbs.
There is no doubt that the Bavarians are Avars(Avaryans). This is the west of the Avar Kaganate. Both forms have always existed in parallel. Baron corresponds to the Slavic Barin, Boyarin, Obrin, Obarin and Avarin.But I guess the Bavarians - the B-Irish - have also a lot to do with the Celts in the Isles.
most likely they were not Germans, but Celts, because, judging by the name, Old English is from them, and it is, after all, Celto-Latin. The last settlement there was Norman and not Anglo-Saxon
There is no doubt that the Bavarians are Avars(Avaryans). ...
The Anglo-Saxons were Germanics - not Celts. And the Normans (from Scandinavia) had lived for more than 300 years in France (Normans and Germans are also not a big differenc and the Frankonians were also a Germanic tribe) - and defended France against the vikings - before they had conquered Britannia in 1066. A little while later they started the "Frankonian wars" - how the crusades were called 200 years ago from the Muslims.
No idea what you speak abhout - but it has anothing to do with anything what I ever said in my life.
This is an unreliable version. As far as I understand, the Anglo-Saxon language is close to Celtic.
As for the Normans, I have already said, it is logical to consider them as Germans identical to the Britons.
The Britons, as already mentioned, came to power after the Jarls, approximately after Tamerlane captured the Golden Horde. And the Jarls were the henchmen of the Genghisids.
Bavarians and Awars have nothing to do with each other. No one has any concrete idea about which language the Awars had spoken.This is exactly the confirmation of my version. Discarding the postfixes, we will just get boyars, etc.
This word has only 2 reliable variants: vik-ing trader or vi-king courtier, serv of the king in the king's court.and defended France against the vikings
This is an unreliable version. As far as I understand, the Anglo-Saxon language is close to Celtic.
As for the Normans, I have already said, it is logical to consider them as Germans identical to the Britons.
The Normans seddled for 300 years in France before "William the conqueror" conquered England in 1066.This word has only 2 reliable variants: vik-ing trader or vi-king courtier, serv of the king in the king's court.
If these were really warriors, then where did those Germans come from whom we know by their thin legs in stockings and shoes, wigs, bows and so on? Who are they? Which tribe?
I used it to explain where the word "Nor" for "Normans" comes from in this case. Form the North - from Scandinavia.There is no such people, different peoples lived there, at least 3 are well known: Old Scandinavians, Sami and Germans.
No idea what you speak abhout - but it has anothing to do with anything what I ever said in my life.