Origin of articles in Western European languages

[zaangalewa]

The English uses three grammatical genders - he, she, it. It mainly corresponds with the Slavic languages, for example the Russian - on, ona, ono.

Which grammatical gender has a table? "It", isn't it? Nearly everything has the grammatical gender "it" in the English language. He and she are reserved for persons - for biological sex (exception "she" for a country - ¿exist other exceptions?).

In the Russian language everything has a gender (out of 3 grammatical genders) - without article. It exist male, female and neutral endings - but also an ending which is unclear.

In the German language exist by the way also the possibility for a female ending. Normal word "der Kanzler" (the chancellor) "der"=male article. The chancellor - he. But you are in case of Angela Merkel also able to say "the chancellor" - she - because the sex of Angela Merkel is female. And we are also able to transform the word with an ending into a female grammatical gender "der Kanzler" (he) into "die Kanzler-in" (she). As well "der Kanzler" and "die Kanzlerin" are translated "the chancellor"

 

[Bleipriester]

The Anglosaxons were two tribes: the Angeln and the Saxons. (North Germans)

And it is very likely that they wanted to have a new identity.

 

[zaangalewa]

And it is very likely that they wanted to have a new identity.

Perhaps all Angeln moved to Britannia. But most Saxons are still North Germans - and that's exactly what we call them today: North-Germans. And the Saxons of today have not a lot to do with the ancient Anglo-Saxons. They are totally other Saxonians. But I guess the Bavarians - the B-Irish - have also a lot to do with the Celts in the Isles.

 

[Bleipriester]

Perhaps all Angeln moved to Britannia. But most Saxons are still North Germans - and that's exactly what we call them today: North-Germans. And the Saxons of today have not a lot to do with the ancient Anglo-Saxons. They are totally other Saxonians. But I guess the Bavarians - the B-Irish - have also a lot to do with the Celts in the Isles.

Sure, time changes. people change.

 

[rupol2000]

It's a question of complexity and simplicity. The grammatical gender of the sun is in the German language for example female - a symbol for the life spending power of the sun. The grammatical gender of "girl" (Mädchen) is for example neutral - because a girl is a child and not a woman.

no, it's a design issue. Simplicity and complexity mean nothing of themselves.

The difference in German between genders is due to mixing. There is a lot of Indo-European grammar left in German, because the Germans first came to England and France and only then to the east of Austrasia / Avaria.
This also can be seen from the fact that Indo-European root-inflections in German still remain a full-fledged form, while in New English and New French they are only in the table of irregular verbs.

 

[rupol2000]

But most Saxons are still North Germans - and that's exactly what we call them today: North-Germans

most likely they were not Germans, but Celts, because, judging by the name, Old English is from them, and it is, after all, Celto-Latin. The last settlement there was Norman and not Anglo-Saxon

 

[Meathead]

Is Latin a Romanic? Are there articles?

Slavic languages have no articles, I believe they are used only in Western Indo-European languages.

 

[rupol2000]

Slavic languages have no articles, I believe they are used only in Western Indo-European languages.

It were not in the ancient Indo-European languages at all. All Western European IE languages descended from Celtic (ancient) Latin.

 

[rupol2000]

By the way, the Saxons could have been a type of Huns known as the Saki.

 

[rupol2000]

I think that historians are mistaken or hiding something about the settlement of Britain by the Anglo-Saxons. They believe that these were the Germans driven out by the Huns, but in fact it seems that they were precisely the Huns or Celts, who themselves drove out the Germanians as part of the Huns' army.
The Britons might not have been Celts, but Germans. They were just and were obviously Normans, because in Scandinavia they appeared after the Jarls, under the name briti

 

[Meathead]

It were not in the ancient Indo-European languages at all. All Western European IE languages descended from Celtic (ancient) Latin.

The origins of Proto Indo-European languages is unclear but may well be from the north of the Black Sea. Theories abound.

 

[rupol2000]

and Latin (lingua franka)

literally it is the language of the Franks, what does Latin have to do with it? Franks are Germans

 

[Unkotare]

I think that historians are mistaken or hiding something ......

 

[rupol2000]

The origins of Proto Indo-European languages is unclear but may well be from the north of the Black Sea. Theories abound.

As far as I know, it is clear. It is protocharian, the common ancestor of the Vedic, Mittanic, Ancient Greek and Old Latin

 

[rupol2000]

Latin uses endings: -us = male (Benedictus = he who is blessed), -a = female (Benedicta = she who is blessed).

What does the article have to do with it? These are postfixes or inflection in endings

Here we have to clarify more about what kind of latin we are talking about. Obviously classical Latin was no longer clear Indo-European, it was influenced by Etruscans and plebeians of non-lаtin roots

 

[Meathead]

As far as I know, it is clear. It is protocharian, the common ancestor of the Vedic, Mittanic, Ancient Greek and Old Latin

Proto-Indo-European language - Wikipedia

en.wikipedia.org

 

[rupol2000]

Latin uses endings: -us = male (Benedictus = he who is blessed), -a = female (Benedicta = she who is blessed).

By the way, this form of the feminine gender corresponds to the Slavic. But both of them do not correspond to the Aryan Vedic. Slavic forms also do not correspond to it, there the masculine gender could be formed as a Slavic feminine: for example, Indra, Devasya, and the feminine apparently usually formed with the ending "i": Sarasvati, Indrani, Devi, etc.

 

[rupol2000]

View attachment 569351

Proto-Indo-European language - Wikipedia

en.wikipedia.org

Toharyans are from about there

 

[rupol2000]

By the way, this form of the feminine gender corresponds to the Slavic. But both of them do not correspond to the Aryan Vedic. Slavic forms also do not correspond to it, there the masculine gender could be formed as a Slavic feminine: for example, Indra, Devasya, and the feminine apparently usually formed with the ending "i": Sarasvati, Indrani, Devi, etc.

True, the Ukrainian language has preserved a little from this, there are masculine genders such as "sinka" (son), batka(father), not quite right, but it's close
Ukrainian with Vedic still has in common remnants of melody. Vedic was a melodic language, there was a melodical accent besides simple accent.

 

[Meathead]

True, the Ukrainian language has preserved a little from this, there are masculine genders such as "sinka" (son), batka(father), not quite right, but it's close

In Czech, "syn" is son but oddly enough "otec" is father. Greek, "yios" is son but the more familiar "patera" is father.