rupol2000
Gold Member
- Aug 22, 2021
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- #1
If we consider this langs to be the heirs of Indo-European (although typologically this is not so), then this could not be a source, because in the ancient IE there are not articles. It are there in the Semitic. How did it get into Western Europe? If through the Germans it means the Proto-Germanic language is related to the Semitic, so it turns out?