Origin of articles in Western European languages

[rupol2000]

by the way a Germanic and "France" is a Germanic name

Yes, this is the Germanic name for Celtica. It is on the same principle that the name of modern Germany is formed: non-Germanic peoples under the rule of the Germans.

 

[rupol2000]

After this information take a look to the following video for some basic knowledge about the Holy Empire from 800 AD-1806 AD (Today "Germany"). The Awars - whoever they had been and whatever language they really had spoken - had lived somewhere between the Byzantine empire and the Holy Empire.

The German Empire(instead of Roman) was formed only in the 12-13th centuries. In general, the denial of the existence of the Accident smacks of idiocy, I'm going to argue this nonsense

 

[rupol2000]

no one knowa which kind of people the Awars really had been (Europeans, Mongols)

They just don't tell the "cattle". They also know that Mongols are not Evenki as it is "accepted in historiography"

Attila was from the Volga, hence the name Itil. Oirats are from Altai, Ugrians are Uyghurs and so on. These were the steppe peoples of the great steppe, including the Danube.

 

[rupol2000]

The Germany I know is called "Deutschland"- We are "doitsh" in a similiar way how the Scottish are "scoitsh".

Belonging to the Danes is no different from belonging to the Germans or Rus. This does not mean that the subordinate peoples themselves are Germanic in origin. In any case, not all. And the Danes and the Prussians were hardly very different, they are about one people.

 

[Admiral Rockwell Tory]

no, it's a design issue. Simplicity and complexity mean nothing of themselves.

The difference in German between genders is due to mixing. There is a lot of Indo-European grammar left in German, because the Germans first came to England and France and only then to the east of Austrasia / Avaria.
This also can be seen from the fact that Indo-European root-inflections in German still remain a full-fledged form, while in New English and New French they are only in the table of irregular verbs.

All I have to say about this thread is that you and your fellow minions that are posting here OBVIOULY have too much time on your hands, debating a topic that is already well-documented I am sure. Besides, who cares?

 

[rupol2000]

"doitsh"

Pay attention to the form of this ethnonym. Etymologically, this suffix means possessiveness, belonging to someone. There is the same difference as between the people "Rus" and "Russish", "Russian". And "the land of the Deut/Doit" does not mean that only the Deutsches live there.

 

[rupol2000]

After this information take a look to the following video for some basic knowledge about the Holy Empire from 800 AD-1806 AD (Today "Germany").

I do not know how reliable the information from Wikipedia is, but it can be checked.

quote:
""
Since Charlemagne, the realm was merely referred to as the Roman Empire.[19] The term sacrum ("holy", in the sense of "consecrated") in connection with the medieval Roman Empire was used beginning in 1157 under Frederick I Barbarossa ("Holy Empire"): the term was added to reflect Frederick's ambition to dominate Italy and the Papacy.[20] The form "Holy Roman Empire" is attested from 1254 onward.[21]

In a decree following the Diet of Cologne in 1512, the name was changed to the Holy Roman Empire of the German Nation (German: Heiliges Römisches Reich Deutscher Nation, Latin: Sacrum Imperium Romanum Nationis Germanicæ),[19] a form first used in a document in 1474.[20]


""


Let me remind you where Romania is

 

[rupol2000]

This is a map of the distribution of Slavic languages (highlighted in green) from Wikipedia, in fact, this area before Bavaria

This is the dynamics of their distribution, and the epicenter roughly corresponds to Romania. In any case, there is an agreement that this is a Danube valley.

And now compare this area with the localization of the Avar Kaganate. There is almost an exact coincidence both in geography and in terms of time of existence.

 

[rupol2000]

It is quite possible that the cross of George, which was widespread in Europe, similar in shape to the Celtic cross, was originally also among the Avars, here is their coin:

in fact there is no particular difference between the Byzantine style and the Avar

 

[rupol2000]

The Slavic migrations to the Balkans have taken place since the mid-6th century and first decades of the 7th century in Early Middle Ages. The rapid demographic spread of the Slavs was followed by a population exchange, mixing and language shift to and from Slavic.

Slavic migrations to the Balkans - Wikipedia

en.wikipedia.org

They are probably best known for their invasions and destruction in the Avar–Byzantine wars from 568 to 626.

Pannonian Avars - Wikipedia

en.wikipedia.org

questions?

Do you think this is non-official history?

 

[zaangalewa]

Boyars are Avars.

Boio (=Germanics=Bohemians) and Bavarians are perhaps the same people. The Suedens (Swedesn) - ah sorry: the Suebens (Schwaben) and Alemans, niegtbpours of the Bavarians, call Bavarians "Boiern". And as far as I know lived Germanics in the area of Prague about 500 years before the first Slaws (=Czechs) arrived there. And again: It's said the Awars looked like Europeans and/or Mongols - and they spoke a totally unknown language - and they had lived in an area between the Holy Empire ("West Rome") and the empire of Byzanz ("East Rome"). No one has any good idea about this culture and this people. Perhaps use some people topday the name "Awars" every time they have not really a good idea what they try to speak about.

There are options: Avarin, Abarin, Boyarin, Obrin and so on, hence the Baron

Your fantasy works!

 

[zaangalewa]

Yes, this is the Germanic name for Celtica.

"Franken" are Germanics - not Celts. The name "France" refers to her Germanic roots.

It is on the same principle that the name of modern Germany is formed: non-Germanic peoples under the rule of the Germans.

Idiot.

 

[zaangalewa]

Pay attention to the form of this ethnonym. Etymologically, this suffix means possessiveness, belonging to someone. There is the same difference as between the people "Rus" and "Russish", "Russian". And "the land of the Deut/Doit" does not mean that only the Deutsches live there.

"Deutsch" is not a substantive - that's why most people outside of Germany have a problem to use it. The "Heilige Römische Reich deutscher Nation" (verbally: "Holy Roman Empire of German Nation") had not been holy, it was not Roman and or German and it was no nation. And it was also not an empire. It meant politics and religion had tried to be seperated between pope and emperor and it were many nations. So the name means somehow "Holy + Roman political entity of German (=united) nations". "Deutsch" means to be united by speaking the same language (=by being able to communicate without interpreter with each other).

The French for example speak a very nice mix of Celtic and Latin roots - what also has to do with the German Charlesmagne. This first emperor preferred to speak Latin - although he had not been able to write. Charlesmagne lived in Aachen, where he had an unbelievable big residence. He, his warriors and his "scientists" are comparable with the myths around King Arthur - but he was real. The monk and philosopher Alkuin for example had been his very important "Merlin" (Merlin means by the way "little fairy tale" and/or "little storyteller"). And "Charles" was by the way called "magne" because he had been big. He was about 2 yards tall.

In the interpretation of this time of history we speak somehow now "deutsch" (or "thiot" what had been the original word) and so we are "Deutsche" (="Germans") now.

 

[zaangalewa]

This is a map of the distribution of Slavic languages (highlighted in green) from Wikipedia, in fact, this area before Bavaria

This is the dynamics of their distribution, and the epicenter roughly corresponds to Romania. In any case, there is an agreement that this is a Danube valley.

And now compare this area with the localization of the Avar Kaganate. There is almost an exact coincidence both in geography and in terms of time of existence.

Totally stupid what you show and say here - and what you bring into a wrong context.

 

[zaangalewa]

The Slavic migrations to the Balkans have taken place since the mid-6th century and first decades of the 7th century in Early Middle Ages. The rapid demographic spread of the Slavs was followed by a population exchange, mixing and language shift to and from Slavic. ...

Or with other words: Slaws had conquered this area and murdered the people who had lived there before. And this murderous mentality continued to exist - if you remember now for example the fall of the artifical construct from world war 1 "Yugoslavia" .... So: What was and is better without Germans and/or Austrians in this area of the world?

 

[zaangalewa]

It is quite possible that the cross of George, which was widespread in Europe, similar in shape to the Celtic cross, was originally also among the Avars, here is their coin:

in fact there is no particular difference between the Byzantine style and the Avar

So you think the Awars had been Greeks? Or a Turkish tribe like the blond eyed Japanese?

 

[rupol2000]

Boio (=Germanics=Bohemians) and Bavarians are perhaps the same people.

Everything is correct, hence the Russian boyars. These are Avars-Bavars

 

[rupol2000]

"Franken" are Germanics - not Celts. The name "France" refers to her Germanic roots.

There was only Frankish power there. The people themselves are the Celts, France is the former Celtica (Galiya)

 

[rupol2000]

The French for example speak a very nice mix of Celtic and Latin roots - what also has to do with the German Charlesmagne. This first emperor preferred to speak Latin - although he had not been able to write. Charlesmagne lived in Aachen, where he had an unbelievable big residence. He, his warriors and his "scientists" are comparable with the myths around King Arthur - but he was real. The monk and philosopher Alkuin for example had been his very important "Merlin" (Merlin means by the way "little fairy tale" and/or "little storyteller"). And "Charles" was by the way called "magne" because he had been big. He was about 2 yards tall.

Only it is not clear what does the Germans have to do with it. Their language, on the contrary, is rough.
Modern French inherited only phonetics and vocabulary from Celtic, the grammar there is the same as in English. I think this is Germanic grammar, because it had nowhere else to come from.

 

[rupol2000]

Or with other words: Slaws had conquered this area and murdered the people who had lived there before. And this murderous mentality continued to exist - if you remember now for example the fall of the artifical construct from world war 1 "Yugoslavia" .... So: What was and is better without Germans and/or Austrians in this area of the world?

On the contrary, they liberated the Celts who fell under the rule of the Goths at that time. The Goths have always had a bloody slave order.