Inquisition in Europe: what they hide.

They pretend that there are no traces of the language of the people who were settled throughout Eurasia, and whose kings sat on the Byzantine thrones, only 1000 years ago, but at the same time they confidently declare that they easily deciphered the languages of the Sumerian-Akkadian period and supposedly ancient examples of scripture from Palestine. They consider the people to be downright idiots.
 
The fact that the Avars were native speakers of the Slavic and the nobility among the Baltic peoples is also confirmed by the fact that there are no names for the nobility derived from the Germans or Balts (including the Rus-people or Variagians) in the Slavic languages. All that is there is a derivative of the Bulgars, Avars and Khazars: boyar, hozyain(from hazarin, hussar)and barin (from Abarin/Obrin that is variant of Avarin, Baron from this word too). There are no viking or german or frank or varag or rus or litvin or goth or tudor datch or any other
Even though "German" matrons from "Gotthorp" and "Holstein" were sitting on the throne in the 18th century.
True, there was also the title of "knyaz", but it is not entirely clear what it has to do with the German nobility
 
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From the word "frank" of the Slavic came the word enemy - "vrag". This is a variation of the word warag, which is also a variant of the frank.
"Frank" is a variant with stunning end nasal "frang" or "vrang"
 
If the East Slavic language was the language of the historical Russians, then when, under what circumstances, did it spread to the land of the Don, the Volga region and the Urals (where was the Golden Horde and its predecessors)?
 
The meaning of the word Ukraine is "borderland"
This is the official version, but it has nothing to do with reality. In the 18th century it was mainly the territory of Poland, and later of Austro-Hungary, Moscow owned only the Hetmanate region there, and in the 19th century there was no autonomy called "Ukraine".
 
Genetics of Ukraine also has nothing to do with the northwest, the primordial Russian lands. It is identical only to the southeastern steppe lands of the Don and Volga valleys, which were not directly subordinate to Moscow too. Besides, there is Balkan markers, from serbian colonists.
 
At the end of the existence of the state of the Franks. There was a period of the great conquests of the Hungarians in Europe. Of course they established authority. And that was the Hungarian Empire.

It is believed that the Franks founded the Holy Roman Empire after defeating the Hungarians at the Lech River. But they could not do this, because the Hungarians had huge cavalry and excellent warriors, and the Germans always had only peasant rabble in their troops. They had no cavalry and had nowhere to feed their horses, because they did not have rich pastures. Battle of Leh fiction

This means that the Holy Roman Empire was formed later. Most likely this was at the time of the ferocity of the Inquisition, and it is with this that the change in church policy is connected. This was at the end of the 12-13th century. Obviously, this was somehow connected with the Timurid invasion of the Golden Horde.

You shall better write about mass genocides by Muslims.
Christian inquisition has sentenced to death not more as 1,000 for 400 years.



 
You shall better write about mass genocides by Muslims.
Christian inquisition has sentenced to death not more as 1,000 for 400 years.
These are politicized numbers that should not be trusted. In addition, if you are talking about genocide, then include there not only the Inquisition, and all bloody crimes, including massive ones, like the genocide of Qatar.

In addition, I do not see any fundamental difference between Islamic and Christian movements. They promote the same values, the same scripture and the same god.
 
This is the official version, but it has nothing to do with reality.

From my point of view it's reality pure. There's a heavy fight between good (supporters of democracy) and evil (tyrant Lukashenko and his gang).

In the 18th century it was mainly the territory of Poland, and later of Austro-Hungary, Moscow owned only the Hetmanate region there, and in the 19th century there was no autonomy called "Ukraine".

Hmmm .:. The dukedom Galizien and Lodomerien and the dukedom Bukowina had been indeed partially on the territory where the Ukraine is today. I guess this had been a part of the agreement between Prussia, Russia and Austria-Hungaria to eliminate Poland.


Galitzia_%281914%29.svg
 
Almost all of southeastern Germany was also previously "Slavic".

The Prussians (most eastern German tribe) came from the area around "Königsberg". Königsberg forever will be known as the city with the seven bridges of the German philosopher Immanuel Kant. The slawic name today is "Kaliningrad". The criminal mass-murderer Kalinin never had lived in Königsberg as far as I know.

This is clearly seen in genetics as well. East Germany is not identical to West Germany,

What a bullshit.

there is quite a lot of R1a, while in the west there is R1b.

Whatever this means or not means: It is bullshit. Even a green Marsupilami who speaks German is a German. And everyone knows Marsupilamis have the famous Ksj-Hbhf-KSA III c gene - and never anyone found this famous gene anywhere else.

Therefore, they gravitated towards Austria Hungary.

The tragedy of Germany had been the neverending fights of the Prussians against the Austrians.





The modern German language is an intermediate variant between Slavic and English

Stupid idea.

; Indo-European grammar has been preserved there in irregular verbs. In English and French it is completely extinct.

The language French has nothing to do with German - despite the German roots of France.

This is due to the fact that the Franks came to the east later than to France and England, and the Frankish-German superstratum did not manage to supplant the Slavic substratum.

What a nonsense. Germans lived once in wide areas of Europe where today live Slaws.
 
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They pretend that there are no traces of the language of the people who were settled throughout Eurasia, and whose kings sat on the Byzantine thrones, only 1000 years ago, but at the same time they confidently declare that they easily deciphered the languages of the Sumerian-Akkadian period and supposedly ancient examples of scripture from Palestine. They consider the people to be downright idiots.

¿ ... It speaks ... but what is it? ... ¿and what speaks it? ... ???
 
You shall better write about mass genocides by Muslims.
Christian inquisition has sentenced to death not more as 1,000 for 400 years.





They put nearly 10,000 on trial, acquitted about 9,000, and of the 1,000 or so sentenced to death, about 680 were burned in effigy, not actually put to death. As for the Crusades, apparently it's bad and evul n stuff when Europeans defend themselves from hundreds of years of marauding Muslims or something.
 
They put nearly 10,000 on trial, acquitted about 9,000, and of the 1,000 or so sentenced to death, about 680 were burned in effigy, not actually put to death. As for the Crusades, apparently it's bad and evul n stuff when Europeans defend themselves from hundreds of years of marauding Muslims or something.

Your statement is a communist lie
 
Hmmm .:. The dukedom Galizien and Lodomerien and the dukedom Bukowina had been indeed partially on the territory where the Ukraine is today. I guess this had been a part of the agreement between Prussia, Russia and Austria-Hungaria to eliminate Poland.
No. The entire center of Ukraine between the Hetmanate and the Ottoman south was Lesser Poland and the Hetmanate and the Ottomans fought with them. It was Lesser Poland
 
The tragedy of Germany had been the neverending fights of the Prussians against the Austrians.
This is no coincidence. This is a continuation of the wars of the Avars with Franks and Goths. Previously, these were the battles of the Sarmatians with the Goths, and it had the same meaning. They are primordial enemies.
 
The tragedy of Germany had been the neverending fights of the Prussians against the Austrians.
Don't confuse the powdered hucksters of the north with the cavalry of the south. Austro-Hungarians are not Germans, they are descendants of the Huns and Sarmatians. Their language is Germanic only because they were under the rule of the Franks for a long time, and there were streams of colonialists from the northwest.
Austro-Hungarians did not wear stockings and wigs, did not trade like Vikings, they generally despised traders. It was a knightly male culture and there was no matriarchy, there were no "queens" and so on.
 
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The language French has nothing to do with German
The native language of the French is Celtic Latin, French originated from the Frankish superstratum.
Franks are Germans
In English and French, the original Latin grammar has completely degenerated. This cannot be explained otherwise than through the influence of the Franks.
 
This is no coincidence. This is a continuation of the wars of the Avars with Franks and Goths.

If we had been in an existential war with the Awars then we would know something about them - specially about their language, because we had tried to speak with them and had looked everywhere for interpreters. So either the Awars spoke with no one in Europe or they had been so damned boring that no one remembered anything what they said.

Previously, these were the battles of the Sarmatians with the Goths, and it had the same meaning. They are primordial enemies.

no comment
 
Ah, there's nothing like 'history' that some numbskull just pulled out of his ass to prove the real value of the internet!
 

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