Illegal Aliens Covered by the U.S. Constitution?

longknife

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Sep 21, 2012
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I continually hear Leftists make this claim. And it makes me shake my head. All one has to do is read the preamble to the constitution to see the clear original meaning of the rights contained therein.

We the People of the United States, in Order to form a more perfect Union, establish Justice, insure domestic Tranquility, provide for the common defence, promote the general Welfare, and secure the Blessings of Liberty to ourselves and our Posterity, do ordain and establish this Constitution for the United States of America.

It doesn't say "We the people of North America." Or "We the people of the world." It specifies Americans. Citizens of the United States.

That being the case, by what constitutional power do non-citizens or people who are criminally in this country without proper documentation have those rights?

Will one of the Leftist/Progressive posters on here calmly and logically explain this to me?
 
I thought the same thing till I was referred to court rulings on the matter. Apparently globalists are deciding that if you are illegal, you are a person, and therefore protected. Even some of the founders felt the same.

Yes, illegal aliens have constitutional rights
Yes, illegal aliens have constitutional rights

"No state shall make or enforce any law which shall abridge the privileges or immunities of citizens of the United States; nor shall any state deprive any person of life, liberty or property, without due process of law; nor deny to any person within its jurisdiction the equal protection of the laws.


"The U.S. Supreme Court settled the issue well over a century ago. But even before the court laid the issue to rest, a principal author of the Constitution, James Madison, the fourth president of the United States, wrote: "that as they [aliens], owe, on the one hand, a temporary obedience, they are entitled, in return, to their [constitutional] protection and advantage."
 
14th Amendment

No state shall make or enforce any law which shall abridge the privileges or immunities of citizens of the United States; nor shall any state deprive any person of life, liberty or property, without due process of law; nor deny to any person within its jurisdiction the equal protection of the laws.
 
I continually hear Leftists make this claim. And it makes me shake my head. All one has to do is read the preamble to the constitution to see the clear original meaning of the rights contained therein.

We the People of the United States, in Order to form a more perfect Union, establish Justice, insure domestic Tranquility, provide for the common defence, promote the general Welfare, and secure the Blessings of Liberty to ourselves and our Posterity, do ordain and establish this Constitution for the United States of America.

It doesn't say "We the people of North America." Or "We the people of the world." It specifies Americans. Citizens of the United States.

That being the case, by what constitutional power do non-citizens or people who are criminally in this country without proper documentation have those rights?

Will one of the Leftist/Progressive posters on here calmly and logically explain this to me?
I'm not a progressive leftist and it has nothing to do with them just ignorance of the Constitution...
 
I thought the same thing till I was referred to court rulings on the matter. Apparently globalists are deciding that if you are illegal, you are a person, and therefore protected. Even some of the founders felt the same.

Yes, illegal aliens have constitutional rights
Yes, illegal aliens have constitutional rights

"No state shall make or enforce any law which shall abridge the privileges or immunities of citizens of the United States; nor shall any state deprive any person of life, liberty or property, without due process of law; nor deny to any person within its jurisdiction the equal protection of the laws.


"The U.S. Supreme Court settled the issue well over a century ago. But even before the court laid the issue to rest, a principal author of the Constitution, James Madison, the fourth president of the United States, wrote: "that as they [aliens], owe, on the one hand, a temporary obedience, they are entitled, in return, to their [constitutional] protection and advantage."

They have rights. They have the right to return to their home country.
We should help them with this right.
 
I thought the same thing till I was referred to court rulings on the matter. Apparently globalists are deciding that if you are illegal, you are a person, and therefore protected. Even some of the founders felt the same.

Yes, illegal aliens have constitutional rights
Yes, illegal aliens have constitutional rights

"No state shall make or enforce any law which shall abridge the privileges or immunities of citizens of the United States; nor shall any state deprive any person of life, liberty or property, without due process of law; nor deny to any person within its jurisdiction the equal protection of the laws.


"The U.S. Supreme Court settled the issue well over a century ago. But even before the court laid the issue to rest, a principal author of the Constitution, James Madison, the fourth president of the United States, wrote: "that as they [aliens], owe, on the one hand, a temporary obedience, they are entitled, in return, to their [constitutional] protection and advantage."

Seems like an awful lot of people skipped this part in Civics class.
 
I continually hear Leftists make this claim. And it makes me shake my head. All one has to do is read the preamble to the constitution to see the clear original meaning of the rights contained therein.

We the People of the United States, in Order to form a more perfect Union, establish Justice, insure domestic Tranquility, provide for the common defence, promote the general Welfare, and secure the Blessings of Liberty to ourselves and our Posterity, do ordain and establish this Constitution for the United States of America.

It doesn't say "We the people of North America." Or "We the people of the world." It specifies Americans. Citizens of the United States.

That being the case, by what constitutional power do non-citizens or people who are criminally in this country without proper documentation have those rights?

Will one of the Leftist/Progressive posters on here calmly and logically explain this to me?
This is a rule that the Courts expanded and wrote some new law. Before that it was only when arrested they had any so called rights.
 
14th Amendment

No state shall make or enforce any law which shall abridge the privileges or immunities of citizens of the United States; nor shall any state deprive any person of life, liberty or property, without due process of law; nor deny to any person within its jurisdiction the equal protection of the laws.
I see nothing about the vote, property ownership, education welfare, medical care. They are not here legally they are not here under the cover of law.
 
if any human believes in rights, such as those outlined in the constitution....then they're a mother fucking weirdo to think those rights should be afforded those only born within a certain parameter of earth
 
14th Amendment

No state shall make or enforce any law which shall abridge the privileges or immunities of citizens of the United States; nor shall any state deprive any person of life, liberty or property, without due process of law; nor deny to any person within its jurisdiction the equal protection of the laws.
I see nothing about the vote, property ownership, education welfare, medical care. They are not here legally they are not here under the cover of law.
Reality and what you want are two different shades of color..
 
14th Amendment

No state shall make or enforce any law which shall abridge the privileges or immunities of citizens of the United States; nor shall any state deprive any person of life, liberty or property, without due process of law; nor deny to any person within its jurisdiction the equal protection of the laws.

Every visitor or immigrant from another country would have to submit themselves to the laws of that nation they happen to reside in, it does not matter if that nation is the United States, France, Italy, Mexico, or Iran. That sediment is what’s reflected surrounding our 14th Amendmend with how it’s been written and interpreted for this country. There is a clear difference, however, between a foreigner subjecting themselves under a nation’s laws, and the full rights and benefits allowed of a legal citizen of that country.
 
I continually hear Leftists make this claim. And it makes me shake my head. All one has to do is read the preamble to the constitution to see the clear original meaning of the rights contained therein.

We the People of the United States, in Order to form a more perfect Union, establish Justice, insure domestic Tranquility, provide for the common defence, promote the general Welfare, and secure the Blessings of Liberty to ourselves and our Posterity, do ordain and establish this Constitution for the United States of America.

It doesn't say "We the people of North America." Or "We the people of the world." It specifies Americans. Citizens of the United States.

That being the case, by what constitutional power do non-citizens or people who are criminally in this country without proper documentation have those rights?

Will one of the Leftist/Progressive posters on here calmly and logically explain this to me?
so much for the allegation, of natural and individual rights, gun lovers always allege, when it is specifically about guns.
 
I continually hear Leftists make this claim. And it makes me shake my head. All one has to do is read the preamble to the constitution to see the clear original meaning of the rights contained therein.

We the People of the United States, in Order to form a more perfect Union, establish Justice, insure domestic Tranquility, provide for the common defence, promote the general Welfare, and secure the Blessings of Liberty to ourselves and our Posterity, do ordain and establish this Constitution for the United States of America.

It doesn't say "We the people of North America." Or "We the people of the world." It specifies Americans. Citizens of the United States.

That being the case, by what constitutional power do non-citizens or people who are criminally in this country without proper documentation have those rights?

Will one of the Leftist/Progressive posters on here calmly and logically explain this to me?
Any law must emanate from some authority. Our Constitution is very specific.
 
14th Amendment

No state shall make or enforce any law which shall abridge the privileges or immunities of citizens of the United States; nor shall any state deprive any person of life, liberty or property, without due process of law; nor deny to any person within its jurisdiction the equal protection of the laws.
I see nothing about the vote, property ownership, education welfare, medical care. They are not here legally they are not here under the cover of law.

No the 14th Amendment is about due process. You can’t be stopped and have your personal property seized, or be thrown in jail, without the right of representation in a trial. It has absolutely nothing to do with voting rights, education, social security benefits, even employment (without having obtained a work visa). That is not what the 14th Amendment says at all.
 
As long as they are people....they are covered
 
I continually hear Leftists make this claim. And it makes me shake my head. All one has to do is read the preamble to the constitution to see the clear original meaning of the rights contained therein.

We the People of the United States, in Order to form a more perfect Union, establish Justice, insure domestic Tranquility, provide for the common defence, promote the general Welfare, and secure the Blessings of Liberty to ourselves and our Posterity, do ordain and establish this Constitution for the United States of America.

It doesn't say "We the people of North America." Or "We the people of the world." It specifies Americans. Citizens of the United States.

That being the case, by what constitutional power do non-citizens or people who are criminally in this country without proper documentation have those rights?

Will one of the Leftist/Progressive posters on here calmly and logically explain this to me?

Q, Do you know how many people residing in the 13 colonies were born in foreign countries?

A. 48 of the 56 signers were born in America. Two were born in England (Button Gwinnett, Robert Morris), two in Ireland (George Taylor, Matthew Thornton), two in Scotland (James Wilson, John Witherspoon), one in Northern Ireland (James Smith), and one in Wales (Francis Lewis).

Q. Putting your obvious biases aside, what say you to this information.

The non biased would likely infer, that to be allowed to vote on this contested issue, non native born citizens were considered to benefit from the document. Furthermore, if they had been denied the rights of citizenship, one would think they would not have supported the document, or allowed to vote with their signature.
 
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14th Amendment

No state shall make or enforce any law which shall abridge the privileges or immunities of citizens of the United States; nor shall any state deprive any person of life, liberty or property, without due process of law; nor deny to any person within its jurisdiction the equal protection of the laws.

Every visitor or immigrant from another country would have to submit themselves to the laws of that nation they happen to reside in, it does not matter if that nation is the United States, France, Italy, Mexico, or Iran. That sediment is what’s reflected surrounding our 14th Amendmend with how it’s been written and interpreted for this country. There is a clear difference, however, between a foreigner subjecting themselves under a nation’s laws, and the full rights and benefits allowed of a legal citizen of that country.
No there is no difference...
 
14th Amendment

No state shall make or enforce any law which shall abridge the privileges or immunities of citizens of the United States; nor shall any state deprive any person of life, liberty or property, without due process of law; nor deny to any person within its jurisdiction the equal protection of the laws.

Every visitor or immigrant from another country would have to submit themselves to the laws of that nation they happen to reside in, it does not matter if that nation is the United States, France, Italy, Mexico, or Iran. That sediment is what’s reflected surrounding our 14th Amendmend with how it’s been written and interpreted for this country. There is a clear difference, however, between a foreigner subjecting themselves under a nation’s laws, and the full rights and benefits allowed of a legal citizen of that country.
No there is no difference...

There absolutely is, and I’d ask you to provide clear evidence to the contrary. Nowhere in the 14 Amendment does it entitle the foreigner or illegal with having the right to vote, paid education by means of government assistance, social security, benefits that only a legal citizen would have. The 14th clearly states that no person shall be deprived of life, liberty, or property without due process of law, nor deny any person within its jurisdiction of legal protection. This clearly speaks of the issue of legal representation under a court of law and against illegal seizure or unlawful imprisionment without legal protection (which according to our laws is legal representation). All foreigners must be still be subjective to our laws, which includes issues of immigration.
 
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I continually hear Leftists make this claim. And it makes me shake my head. All one has to do is read the preamble to the constitution to see the clear original meaning of the rights contained therein.

We the People of the United States, in Order to form a more perfect Union, establish Justice, insure domestic Tranquility, provide for the common defence, promote the general Welfare, and secure the Blessings of Liberty to ourselves and our Posterity, do ordain and establish this Constitution for the United States of America.

It doesn't say "We the people of North America." Or "We the people of the world." It specifies Americans. Citizens of the United States.

That being the case, by what constitutional power do non-citizens or people who are criminally in this country without proper documentation have those rights?

Will one of the Leftist/Progressive posters on here calmly and logically explain this to me?
so much for the allegation, of natural and individual rights, gun lovers always allege, when it is specifically about guns.

Section 1, Clause 1, of the Fourteenth Amendment, reads: All persons born or naturalized in the United States, and subject to the jurisdiction thereof, are citizens of the United States and of the State wherein they reside.

That would not have been written, nor carry any legal meaning, if it were not for the Founders’ intent of establishing a clear boundary and difference between (1) citizen and (2) the foreigner or an illegal immigrant who hasn’t lawfully obtained citizenship
 

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