P F Tinmore,
et al,
What did it mean when you said "Palestine" in 1947 and 1949?
It was Palestine in 1947 and it was still Palestine in 1949.
What part of that confuses you?
(COMMENT)
You can twist and argue the Phrasing all you want; it doesn't change the meaning. Everyone, in the decision making process, understands what the boundaries are, and what the standing treaties mean.
The treaties between Israel and the Arab States of
Egypt (Article II - permanent boundary between Egypt and Israel) and
Jordan [Annex I (a) - ISRAEL-JORDAN INTERNATIONAL BOUNDARY DELIMITATION AND DEMARCATION] supersede the Armistice Agreements. And they outline the borders between Israel and Egypt, as well as Israel and Jordan. Treaties are the toughest and firmest kind of boundary delimitation.
No one even argues that the Negev is something other than Israeli Sovereign Territory. That is not even a dispute.
The status of the "Blue Line" (Israel-Lebanon) is discussed in the
Report of the Secretary-General pursuant to Security Council resolution 1559 (2004).
You are (only marginally) correct in that the 1949 Armistice Line between Israel and Palestine is not a permanent boundary; still subject to negotiation. It is none-the-less treated as a demarcation with international recognition and protection under the same principals of law as an a permanent boundary
(A/RES/25/2625 - Paragraph 1 - Solumn Proclamation - fifth clause) ("Every State likewise has the duty to refrain from the threat or use of force to violate international lines of demarcation, such as armistice lines, established by or pursuant to an international agreement to which it is a party or which it is otherwise bound to respect.")
I fail to see how you make your point. The term "Palestine" was used to describe the Mandate for Palestine, dating back to the original "Order in Council;"
(Part I - Paragraph 1). The "State of Palestine" did not come into existence until
November 1988 on its Declaration of Independence. The Occupied Palestinian Territory (oPt) is defined by the UN, the Arab League, and the Quartet as stated by the Sole Representatives of the Palestinian People:
"the 1967 border is the internationally-recognized border between Israel and the oPt."
(SUMMARY)
Under the "progressive development and codification" of the
principles of international law relating to friendly relations and co-operation among States:
Palestine is a State as of
Declaration in 1988; "pursuant to the
resolutions of the Arab Summit Conferences and on the basis of the
international legitimacy embodied in the resolutions of the United Nations since 1947;" with the solemn duty to adhere to:
- The principle that States shall refrain in their international relations from the threat or use of force against the territorial integrity or political independence of any State, or in any other manner inconsistent with the purposes of the United Nations,
- The principle that States shall settle their international disputes by peaceful means in such a manner that international peace and security and justice are not endangered,
- Every State has the duty to refrain from the threat or use of force to violate the existing international boundaries of another State or as a means of solving international disputes, including territorial disputes and problems concerning frontiers of States.
You may not agree, but that is the reality
(unflavored - unvarnished). You may argue a dispute, but your position flies in the face of even the Arab League and the Palestinian.
- The UN Recognizes the boundary. (Documented)
- The Arab League Recognizes the boundary. (Documented)
- The Sole Representative of the Palestinian People, who declared independence, recognize the boundary. (Documented)
What level of proof do you need?
Most Respectfully,
R