And here I thought a samaritan was the guy that hooked up a chain to my car and hauled me out of a snowdrift I plowed into last winter...due to a mild miscalculation.
go figure
go figure
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Oh, and your interpretation of the NT parable is asinine and hateful: the point was that Samaritans were clearly heretical - and that such was not an excuse to judge them as 'lesser'.
It's a very Jewish point: remember that the focus of the NT is supposed to be Jesus' teachings, and not some running 'running-down' of the Jews.
After all, Jesus was a Jewish Pharisee and taught by using parables: the 'dialogues' are the Greek idiom (Socratic), and some scholars have suggested many of the 'dialogue' sections are later interpolations.
Some silly Christians insist on using 'Pharisee' in much the way you are using 'Zionist': they've made up a 'definition' and 'beliefs' which have no association with the reality, and just proceed as though YHVH Himself had coined their 'definition'........
In the end...what do genetics matter?
Both the people that call themselves "Palistinians" and the people that call themselves "Jews" share a rich and intertwined history that goes back milliniums.
The only purpose of these arguments is to justify the disenfranchisment of one or the other.
There needs to be justice and liberty for both. There needs to be a homeland for both.
In the end...what do genetics matter?
Both the people that call themselves "Palistinians" and the people that call themselves "Jews" share a rich and intertwined history that goes back milliniums.
The only purpose of these arguments is to justify the disenfranchisment of one or the other.
There needs to be justice and liberty for both. There needs to be a homeland for both.
I have no problem with the 'Palestinian' people being invented in 1967 AND having a homeland next to Israel.
My problem is their OFFICIAL denial that the Temple ever stood on the Temple Mount, their rioting and attacking Jews for simply coming there peacefully, and a few other issues.
I agree: genetics does not matter. It is not being used by Zionists to 'disenfranchise' anyone: it is persistently used to try to disenfranchise 'Ashkenazi' Jews and attack the legitimacy of Israel as the Jewish homeland.
If the 'Palestinians' hadn't been so focused on denying us Jews our right to our homeland - they could have had theirs decades ago. And we'd have been able to help them get things up & running.
Oh, and your interpretation of the NT parable is asinine and hateful: the point was that Samaritans were clearly heretical - and that such was not an excuse to judge them as 'lesser'.
It's a very Jewish point: remember that the focus of the NT is supposed to be Jesus' teachings, and not some running 'running-down' of the Jews.
After all, Jesus was a Jewish Pharisee and taught by using parables: the 'dialogues' are the Greek idiom (Socratic), and some scholars have suggested many of the 'dialogue' sections are later interpolations.
Some silly Christians insist on using 'Pharisee' in much the way you are using 'Zionist': they've made up a 'definition' and 'beliefs' which have no association with the reality, and just proceed as though YHVH Himself had coined their 'definition'........
Jesus was neither Pharisee or a Saducee. and used both as bad examples, but particularly the Pharisees. I believe you are thinking of Paul, who described himself as a Pharisee's Pharisee. The word Pharisee is practically synonymous with "hypocrite" is Christian discourse. The historical consensus is that he was likely an Essene or something similar.
Let's see the links to the laws which establish such differences.
Oh, and I'd like some independent verification of your other allegations as well.
As for the Jews 'despising' the Samaritans: have you read any of the seemingly endless filth that Protestants churn out attacking Catholics? Or read any of what the Shi'a and Sunni have to say about one another?
Let's see the links to the laws which establish such differences.
Oh, and I'd like some independent verification of your other allegations as well.
Oh, and your interpretation of the NT parable is asinine and hateful: the point was that Samaritans were clearly heretical - and that such was not an excuse to judge them as 'lesser'.
It's a very Jewish point: remember that the focus of the NT is supposed to be Jesus' teachings, and not some running 'running-down' of the Jews.
After all, Jesus was a Jewish Pharisee and taught by using parables: the 'dialogues' are the Greek idiom (Socratic), and some scholars have suggested many of the 'dialogue' sections are later interpolations.
Some silly Christians insist on using 'Pharisee' in much the way you are using 'Zionist': they've made up a 'definition' and 'beliefs' which have no association with the reality, and just proceed as though YHVH Himself had coined their 'definition'........
Jesus was neither Pharisee or a Saducee. and used both as bad examples, but particularly the Pharisees. I believe you are thinking of Paul, who described himself as a Pharisee's Pharisee. The word Pharisee is practically synonymous with "hypocrite" is Christian discourse. The historical consensus is that he was likely an Essene or something similar.
Yes, Jesus was incensed at the Pharisees who were hypocritical. But not all Pharisees were the same: there were at least 7 different schools.
I KNOW I don't have Jesus confused with Paul: Paul claimed all kinds of things about himself which his words don't bear out. But that's waaaay off topic. Let's just say that Paul appears to have been a 'legacy' admission who barely scraped by.......
Let's see the links to the laws which establish such differences.
Oh, and I'd like some independent verification of your other allegations as well.
Well, specifically with regard to Samaritans, how does the law of return apply to them, for example? Yes, I know they are already there for the most part, but if they weren't.
Just wondering. The usual definition is .... if mother was Jewish then child is Jewish.
Samaritans strictly speaking do not have Jewish mothers.
Just wondering. The usual definition is .... if mother was Jewish then child is Jewish.
Samaritans strictly speaking do not have Jewish mothers.
samaritans use the fathers lineage
If you had checked the links already given to you, then you would know that and not need to "wonder"
Let's see the links to the laws which establish such differences.
Oh, and I'd like some independent verification of your other allegations as well.
As for the Jews 'despising' the Samaritans: have you read any of the seemingly endless filth that Protestants churn out attacking Catholics? Or read any of what the Shi'a and Sunni have to say about one another?
No, because I am not interested in filth.
You ARE?
Let's see the links to the laws which establish such differences.
Oh, and I'd like some independent verification of your other allegations as well.
Well, specifically with regard to Samaritans, how does the law of return apply to them, for example? Yes, I know they are already there for the most part, but if they weren't.
Just wondering. The usual definition is .... if mother was Jewish then child is Jewish.
Samaritans strictly speaking do not have Jewish mothers.
samaritans use the fathers lineage
If you had checked the links already given to you, then you would know that and not need to "wonder"
Yes, but the ISRAELI LAW uses the Jewish mother definition as far as I know.