hortysir
In Memorial of 47
- Thread starter
- #581
Really?P F Tinmore, et al,
I think you have something wrong here.
(REFERENCE)In both the Egyptian and Jordanian 1949 armistice agreements (that Israel signed) the Negev was Palestine.
What happened since then?
1949 Armistice Agreement Israel-Egypt
1949 Armistice Agreement Israel-Jordan
(COMMENT)
As you said, the Arab Palestinian needs to remember that:
I cannot find in either Armistice Agreement where the disposition of forces in the Negev Dessert is discussed. Can you point that out to me. If you are talking about the phrases:
- The Arab Palestinian was not a party to the Armistice Agreements; the were between Israel and its adjacent Arab States (Egypt, Jordan, Lebanon and Syria).
- The Armistice Agreements simple stopped the movement of the FEBA (Forward Edge of the Battle Area).
- The Armistice Demarcation Lines were intended to be temporary arrangement, separating hostile forces, not to be construed in any sense as a political or territorial boundary.
It should be remembered that the intent of the conflict was to dissolve the newly formed State of Israel, and establish Arab control over the entirety of the territory to which the Mandate of Palestine formerly applied. No where in any of the Armistice Agreements assign any territory to the entity of Palestine (the capacity of the government to exercise jurisdiction over all control of the territory) or the control of Palestinian Forces. For one reason, that would be beyond the scope and intent of the Armistice Arrangements; for another, there was no party to the conflict know as Palestine, thus no area of control. And of course, Israel was originally apportioned the Negev in the General Assembly Resolution 181(II): The Partition Plan.
- Article III-2, 1949 Armistice Agreement Israel-Egypt wherein it says: "and shall be beyond the Egypt-Palestine frontier."
- Article V, 1d, 1949 Armistice Agreement Israel-Jordan wherein it says: "to the southernmost tip of Palestine,"
The Peace Treaty between Israel-Egypt (1979) and Israel-Jordan (1994), came after both the continuation of the 1948 War in 1967 and again in 1973. In both of those outbreaks of hostilities, the "sovereign control" (the capacity of the government to exercise jurisdiction over the territory) of the Negev Desert was never in question - in the hands of the Israelis. The Arab instigation and incitement of armed conflict in both cases saw an unqualified military defeat of Arab Forces.
Most Respectfully,
R
"It should be remembered that the intent of the conflict was to dissolve the newly formed State of Israel, "
It should be remembered that the intent of the conflict was to protect the Christians and Muslims from Jewish aggression which was intended to ethnically cleanse and/or eliminate the non-Jews living in the portion of Palestine illegally assigned to the Europeans.
I would like to read over the sources supporting that opinion