Yeah, no ;--)
Your both wrong.
The Israeli's are the indigenous people. Studies show that even the European Jews maintained their distinct culture and heritage. They also maintain some of the same genetic diseases found in much more prevalently in jews worldwide and to the same degree as other Judaic populations.
Also from the science of archeology we have definitive proof that the protojudaic peoples developed in the canaan area. Exactly where Israel is now.
We also know as a certainty that the Roman emperor Hadrian, ( right about the 2nd century CE ) out of anger at the Jewish people, changed the name of Judea to palaestina. This happened at a time when Arabs and even Arab Muslims didn't exist yet.
So the palaestina people of Hadrian's time couldn't possibly have been any other than the Judaic people today. Jews.
Arab Muslims didn't exist until sometime around Mo-mad's time or roughly the 7th century CE. Even the first inklings of the Arabic language didn't first appear until roughly the 4th century and that only in a few inscriptions in Pompeii, which is a far cry from Israel. And that as a protolanguage.
The simple fact is that Arab Muslims, who entered the Judaic are in about the 9th century CE as colonists didn't even exist when the term palaestina was coined. Ergo the term could not have meant an Arab Muslim. It meant the Jewish people who's culture and distinctness as a people developed there.
It wasn't until sometime AFTER the Arab defeat in 1967 that Assafat ( an Egyptian ) invented the PLO and thus, absconded with the term and reaplied it to an invented people.
The Arab Muslims of Israel today are not different culturally or ethnically than the Arab Muslims of Jordan ( about 100' away across the Jordan river ) or those in Syria, or a number of other nearby countries.
What is known about the Arab Muslim population is Israel is that they mostly arrived in the second major Arab colonial period in the early to mid 20th century.
See
Redirect Notice
As far as a right of return is concerned, Israel is a sovereign nation. It has no obligation to allow anyone entrance. Nor is there any evidence of a unique culture or peoples known as palestinian. The term and the concept are an invention for political gain.
Also the area in question was intended for a national Jewish homeland. EVERYTHING west of the Jordan in fact in available for that purpose. Ref both the Mandate and the Jordan Memorandum. Ergo the Israeli's cannot be occupying land intended for them in the first place.
Its also readily apparent that the Judaic people were expelled from Arab Lands in the early to mid 20th century, with no compensation payed. Yet the Arabs were not expelled from Israel. 20% of the Israeli population today are Arab. So any questions about right of return must be tied to compensation for those who do not wish to return. If and when the Arabs pay reparations to the Judaic people who were forced from their homes, then and only then should the Judaic people consider the same. However, once again Israel is a sovereign nation, it is not obligated to allow anyone entrance.