gipper
Diamond Member
- Jan 8, 2011
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Not entirely correct and Iran hasn’t attacked the US. So your point is ignorant and meaningless.All one has to do is look to one of the Founders, Jefferson, never got a declaration of war from Congress for the Barbary Wars
Throughout history Presidents, from Jefferson to Obama, have used the military without first getting a declaration of war. Not every military action is war.
Maybe you think since Iran retaliated against your nation of Israel, you consider that an attack on the US. Am I right?
AI Overview
+2
Yes, Jefferson did eventually get Congressional approval for military action against the Barbary pirates, but it wasn't a declaration of war. Initially, he authorized naval forces to protect American ships, and Congress later passed an act in 1802 supporting these efforts. This act authorized the use of force to protect American commerce and seamen in the Mediterranean. While Jefferson's initial actions were defensive, Congress's subsequent authorization solidified their support for the ongoing conflict.
Here's a more detailed explanation:
- Initial Defensive Measures:
As Secretary of State, Jefferson had long advocated for a strong stance against Barbary piracy. Upon becoming President, he authorized naval forces to blockade Tripoli and attack any interfering Barbary ships, viewing these actions as purely defensive measures.
- Congressional Authorization:
While these initial actions were taken without explicit Congressional approval, Jefferson later sought and received Congressional support. In 1802, Congress passed "An act for the protection of commerce and seamen of the United States against the Tripolitan cruisers," authorizing the President to use the armed vessels of the United States to protect commerce and seamen, according to the U.S. Capitol - Visitor Center (.gov). This act, while not a declaration of war, provided the legal and financial backing for the ongoing naval operations against the Barbary pirates.