CrusaderFrank
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- May 20, 2009
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- #21
I read an article, that I cannot immediately locate, that posited the "well regulated militia" qualifier, rather than a blanket "Congress shall make no law" - came about because democrat slave owners in VA were concerned that were the right to bear arms absolutely unlimited, then their slaves had that right and might not want to stay on the democrat Plantation a minute longer.
I will take another search for the article
See:
How Slave Owners Dictated the Language of the 2nd Amendment
Always happy to help you Frank, just ask.
Well it's not all that either apparently
The Origins of "Militia" in the Second Amendment — It's Not About Slavery | Ryan McMaken