frigidweirdo
Diamond Member
- Mar 7, 2014
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You silly person, every argument you make reinforces mine.
At the time the COTUS and Bill or Rights were written there was no Army. There was no Navy. There were wealthy INDIVIDUALS who equipped their ships, and their people with arms, and artillery.
That's an inconvenient fact for you. Today there are people all over the country who own tanks. Most are sans active cannon, but not all.
The reality is you have to be pretty well off to afford them, but we can have them.
Annoying to people like you, but we still have them.
You think every argument I make reinforces yours? I just pissed myself laughing. Let me go clean myself up.
U.S. Army's 251st Birthday Celebration
Since its official establishment, June 14, 1775 — more than a year before the Declaration of Independence — the U.S. Army has played a vital role in the growth and development of the American nation.
www.army.mil
"Since 1775, America's Army has stood ready to protect the nation and its people and will fight to defend its values. Help the Army celebrate its 251st birthday on June 14!"
The US Army was founded in 1775. (Taken from the US Army's official webpage)
US Army in its current form was founded in 1784.
US Constitution was passed in 1789.
The Bill of Rights was passed in 1791.
"At the time the COTUS and Bill or Rights were written there was no Army."
"At the time the COTUS and Bill or Rights were written there was no Army."
"At the time the COTUS and Bill or Rights were written there was no Army."
Yeah, you claim the US Army didn't exist in 1789, or 1791, and yet... IT DID. **** me.
Here's another concept you need to understand. Just because you can do something, or own something, does not mean you have the RIGHT to do or own that.
A right is when a power is taken away from the government/monarch/whoever is in charge.
In order to have a right to something, they have to say to the government "you cannot do this".
There's nothing in the US Constitution that states that they cannot take people's TVs away, or ban them. They don't because what would be the point?
But because they are not specifically banned from doing it, it means you DON'T HAVE THE RIGHT TO A TV.
So, the 2A prevents the US govt from infringing (which is not 100% by any means) on the right to keep arms. Which means the US govt cannot stop people owning "arms".
What the Supreme Court said in Heller was:
"In the absence of any evidence tending to show that possession or use of a 'shotgun having a barrel of less than eighteen inches in length' at this time has some reasonable relationship to the preservation or efficiency of a well regulated militia, we cannot say that the Second Amendment guarantees the right to keep and bear such an instrument."
So, they were looking for evidence that this weapon, which happened to be a shotgun with a short barrel, had a "reasonable relationship" to the militia.
This does not mean that the owner has to be in the militia. This does not mean the gun has to be in the militia.
What it means is that a shotgun is not militia weaponry. It's not normal for a soldier in the militia to use a shotgun.
National Firearms Act - Wikipedia
The Miller case essentially made the NFA precedent in the US. It bans certain types of firearms.
Garland v. Cargill - Wikipedia
In this case they wanted to make Bump Stocks to be classified as machine guns.
"Following the Parkland high school shooting in February 2018, President Donald Trump spoke out against bump stocks, and the National Rifle Association of America (NRA) also threw its weight behind banning bump stocks."
So, the NRA opposed bump stocks. Why?
They're supposed to be "pro-2A".
Also I can't find any mention of the 2A in Garland v. Cargill