Pilot1
Gold Member
- May 3, 2018
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the
the 2nd doesnt have anything to do with calling up any type of militia,,,That’s a stretch
If so, then it affirms the connection of militias to gun ownership
It wouldn't make sense for firearms to be limited to the militia.
It wouldn't be a "right" if only the Army can have guns. Every country, even totalitarian nations, allow the Army to have guns.
That isn't a right, and it wouldn't be in the Bill of Rights.
In addition, in order to be called up by Unorganized Militia (non Government) you'd need to posses firearms privately. So their story fails there too.
Correct. My point was that even if it were, that private ownership of firearms by THE PEOPLE is required. The comma that separates the two statements is important. It is the PEOPLE'S RIGHT pure and simple.