The Constitution and the Minimum Wage

[regent]

[
In Marbury the Court decided it would determine what the Constitution says, and the nation has now accepted that decision.

Uh no, it sure didn't, sparky.

What is "it"?

 

[JoeMoma]

The Constitution is what the Supreme Court say it is.

So if SCOTUS says that the 1st Amendment says we all have to report to forced labor camps, then that is the Constitution?

The Constitution is written in plain language, much to the chagrin of the left. The Constitution means what it says, based on the words that were ratified by the many states

Consent of the governed is a concept that offends the left, and a dictatorial SCOTUS who's very utterance is law, fits with the tyranny the left seeks to impose. Marbury v. Madison usurped significant power for the court, in that the court may through judicial review decide the constitutionality of LAWS. As spurious as this is, it is a LONG way from your claim that the SCOTUS defines the Constitution.

I agree with you, at least I wish I could.

It used to be that the ammendment process was used for changes to the constitution.

The ammendment process was used for the following changes:
All races (even blacks) get to vote
Women get to vote
Prohibition
Repeal of Prohibition
President limited to two terms
Voting age is 18 and above.

The above list is not all inclusive.
Recently, right or wrong, same sex marriage was made law by a supreme court ruling. The equal protection clause (14 ammendment I beleive) was used as a basis. Abortion was made also made the law by supreme court ruling. When our supreme court makes a ruling and sets a precendent, it effectively has the power of an ammendment to the constitution. While it's true that an ammendment can overrule a supreme court ruling, the process is so arduous and so seldom happens that each ruling of the Supreme Court has the effect of rewriting the constitution. In effect, the constitution says what the Supreme Court says it says.

Women were given the right to vote through constitutional ammendment. The same could had been accomplish if the Supreme Court had ruled that women have the right to vote.

 

[regent]

How many amendments to the Constitution would we have if we had to amend for every interpretation? Alabama has amended its constitution over 800 times, and still going.

 

[Conservative65]

The Constitution is what the Supreme Court say it is.

So if SCOTUS says that the 1st Amendment says we all have to report to forced labor camps, then that is the Constitution?

The Constitution is written in plain language, much to the chagrin of the left. The Constitution means what it says, based on the words that were ratified by the many states

Consent of the governed is a concept that offends the left, and a dictatorial SCOTUS who's very utterance is law, fits with the tyranny the left seeks to impose. Marbury v. Madison usurped significant power for the court, in that the court may through judicial review decide the constitutionality of LAWS. As spurious as this is, it is a LONG way from your claim that the SCOTUS defines the Constitution.

I agree with you, at least I wish I could.

It used to be that the ammendment process was used for changes to the constitution.

The ammendment process was used for the following changes:
All races (even blacks) get to vote
Women get to vote
Prohibition
Repeal of Prohibition
President limited to two terms
Voting age is 18 and above.

The above list is not all inclusive.
Recently, right or wrong, same sex marriage was made law by a supreme court ruling. The equal protection clause (14 ammendment I beleive) was used as a basis. Abortion was made also made the law by supreme court ruling. When our supreme court makes a ruling and sets a precendent, it effectively has the power of an ammendment to the constitution. While it's true that an ammendment can overrule a supreme court ruling, the process is so arduous and so seldom happens that each ruling of the Supreme Court has the effect of rewriting the constitution. In effect, the constitution says what the Supreme Court says it says.

Women were given the right to vote through constitutional ammendment. The same could had been accomplish if the Supreme Court had ruled that women have the right to vote.

Women were not given the right to vote through an amendment. The actual wording says "The right of citizens of the United States to vote shall not be denied or abridged by the United States or by any State on account of sex."

 

[JoeMoma]

The Constitution is what the Supreme Court say it is.

So if SCOTUS says that the 1st Amendment says we all have to report to forced labor camps, then that is the Constitution?

The Constitution is written in plain language, much to the chagrin of the left. The Constitution means what it says, based on the words that were ratified by the many states

Consent of the governed is a concept that offends the left, and a dictatorial SCOTUS who's very utterance is law, fits with the tyranny the left seeks to impose. Marbury v. Madison usurped significant power for the court, in that the court may through judicial review decide the constitutionality of LAWS. As spurious as this is, it is a LONG way from your claim that the SCOTUS defines the Constitution.

I agree with you, at least I wish I could.

It used to be that the ammendment process was used for changes to the constitution.

The ammendment process was used for the following changes:
All races (even blacks) get to vote
Women get to vote
Prohibition
Repeal of Prohibition
President limited to two terms
Voting age is 18 and above.

The above list is not all inclusive.
Recently, right or wrong, same sex marriage was made law by a supreme court ruling. The equal protection clause (14 ammendment I beleive) was used as a basis. Abortion was made also made the law by supreme court ruling. When our supreme court makes a ruling and sets a precendent, it effectively has the power of an ammendment to the constitution. While it's true that an ammendment can overrule a supreme court ruling, the process is so arduous and so seldom happens that each ruling of the Supreme Court has the effect of rewriting the constitution. In effect, the constitution says what the Supreme Court says it says.

Women were given the right to vote through constitutional ammendment. The same could had been accomplish if the Supreme Court had ruled that women have the right to vote.

Women were not given the right to vote through an amendment. The actual wording says "The right of citizens of the United States to vote shall not be denied or abridged by the United States or by any State on account of sex."

Okay! So what was the women's suffrage movement about?
When you consider the exact wording of the amendment with the history that women were denied voting rights, not men, then that amendment did give women the right to vote. I suppose you could also say it gave people that are neither male nor female the right to vote.
Don't be surprised if I choose to ignore any further nit-picking of the point you attempted to make.

 

[Wyatt earp]

Minimum wage laws are not unconstitutional simply because they have been shoved under the "commerce clause" exception. Agree or disagree with that, either way though the logic of saying that makes it constitutional is sound.

As for the argument of "why $15 and not $100?" that's just childish. How much do you make a year? $40k? Why not $100K? Oh that's right because one can support a REASONABLE wage increase whilst disagreeing with an unreasonable one.

Its not childish, it is proving a point to you economically illiterate dumb ass liberals.


No matter what fucking dollar an hour minimum wage is.....


You are still making minimum wage


You are still bottom of the fucking ladder poor.

 

[Conservative65]

The Constitution is what the Supreme Court say it is.

So if SCOTUS says that the 1st Amendment says we all have to report to forced labor camps, then that is the Constitution?

The Constitution is written in plain language, much to the chagrin of the left. The Constitution means what it says, based on the words that were ratified by the many states

Consent of the governed is a concept that offends the left, and a dictatorial SCOTUS who's very utterance is law, fits with the tyranny the left seeks to impose. Marbury v. Madison usurped significant power for the court, in that the court may through judicial review decide the constitutionality of LAWS. As spurious as this is, it is a LONG way from your claim that the SCOTUS defines the Constitution.

I agree with you, at least I wish I could.

It used to be that the ammendment process was used for changes to the constitution.

The ammendment process was used for the following changes:
All races (even blacks) get to vote
Women get to vote
Prohibition
Repeal of Prohibition
President limited to two terms
Voting age is 18 and above.

The above list is not all inclusive.
Recently, right or wrong, same sex marriage was made law by a supreme court ruling. The equal protection clause (14 ammendment I beleive) was used as a basis. Abortion was made also made the law by supreme court ruling. When our supreme court makes a ruling and sets a precendent, it effectively has the power of an ammendment to the constitution. While it's true that an ammendment can overrule a supreme court ruling, the process is so arduous and so seldom happens that each ruling of the Supreme Court has the effect of rewriting the constitution. In effect, the constitution says what the Supreme Court says it says.

Women were given the right to vote through constitutional ammendment. The same could had been accomplish if the Supreme Court had ruled that women have the right to vote.

Women were not given the right to vote through an amendment. The actual wording says "The right of citizens of the United States to vote shall not be denied or abridged by the United States or by any State on account of sex."

Okay! So what was the women's suffrage movement about?
When you consider the exact wording of the amendment with the history that women were denied voting rights, not men, then that amendment did give women the right to vote. I suppose you could also say it gave people that are neither male nor female the right to vote.
Don't be surprised if I choose to ignore any further nit-picking of the point you attempted to make.

Your answer proves you don't know how the election process works.

I wouldn't be surprised if you ignore it. Most idiots don't want to learn the truth.

Next thing you'll tell me is the 15th Amendment gave blacks the right to vote.

 

[JoeMoma]

The Constitution is what the Supreme Court say it is.

So if SCOTUS says that the 1st Amendment says we all have to report to forced labor camps, then that is the Constitution?

The Constitution is written in plain language, much to the chagrin of the left. The Constitution means what it says, based on the words that were ratified by the many states

Consent of the governed is a concept that offends the left, and a dictatorial SCOTUS who's very utterance is law, fits with the tyranny the left seeks to impose. Marbury v. Madison usurped significant power for the court, in that the court may through judicial review decide the constitutionality of LAWS. As spurious as this is, it is a LONG way from your claim that the SCOTUS defines the Constitution.

I agree with you, at least I wish I could.

It used to be that the ammendment process was used for changes to the constitution.

The ammendment process was used for the following changes:
All races (even blacks) get to vote
Women get to vote
Prohibition
Repeal of Prohibition
President limited to two terms
Voting age is 18 and above.

The above list is not all inclusive.
Recently, right or wrong, same sex marriage was made law by a supreme court ruling. The equal protection clause (14 ammendment I beleive) was used as a basis. Abortion was made also made the law by supreme court ruling. When our supreme court makes a ruling and sets a precendent, it effectively has the power of an ammendment to the constitution. While it's true that an ammendment can overrule a supreme court ruling, the process is so arduous and so seldom happens that each ruling of the Supreme Court has the effect of rewriting the constitution. In effect, the constitution says what the Supreme Court says it says.

Women were given the right to vote through constitutional ammendment. The same could had been accomplish if the Supreme Court had ruled that women have the right to vote.

Women were not given the right to vote through an amendment. The actual wording says "The right of citizens of the United States to vote shall not be denied or abridged by the United States or by any State on account of sex."

Okay! So what was the women's suffrage movement about?
When you consider the exact wording of the amendment with the history that women were denied voting rights, not men, then that amendment did give women the right to vote. I suppose you could also say it gave people that are neither male nor female the right to vote.
Don't be surprised if I choose to ignore any further nit-picking of the point you attempted to make.

Your answer proves you don't know how the election process works.

I wouldn't be surprised if you ignore it. Most idiots don't want to learn the truth.

Next thing you'll tell me is the 15th Amendment gave blacks the right to vote.

Okay! Explain please. Where did I go wrong.

 

[Conservative65]

So if SCOTUS says that the 1st Amendment says we all have to report to forced labor camps, then that is the Constitution?

The Constitution is written in plain language, much to the chagrin of the left. The Constitution means what it says, based on the words that were ratified by the many states

Consent of the governed is a concept that offends the left, and a dictatorial SCOTUS who's very utterance is law, fits with the tyranny the left seeks to impose. Marbury v. Madison usurped significant power for the court, in that the court may through judicial review decide the constitutionality of LAWS. As spurious as this is, it is a LONG way from your claim that the SCOTUS defines the Constitution.

I agree with you, at least I wish I could.

It used to be that the ammendment process was used for changes to the constitution.

The ammendment process was used for the following changes:
All races (even blacks) get to vote
Women get to vote
Prohibition
Repeal of Prohibition
President limited to two terms
Voting age is 18 and above.

The above list is not all inclusive.
Recently, right or wrong, same sex marriage was made law by a supreme court ruling. The equal protection clause (14 ammendment I beleive) was used as a basis. Abortion was made also made the law by supreme court ruling. When our supreme court makes a ruling and sets a precendent, it effectively has the power of an ammendment to the constitution. While it's true that an ammendment can overrule a supreme court ruling, the process is so arduous and so seldom happens that each ruling of the Supreme Court has the effect of rewriting the constitution. In effect, the constitution says what the Supreme Court says it says.

Women were given the right to vote through constitutional ammendment. The same could had been accomplish if the Supreme Court had ruled that women have the right to vote.

Women were not given the right to vote through an amendment. The actual wording says "The right of citizens of the United States to vote shall not be denied or abridged by the United States or by any State on account of sex."

Okay! So what was the women's suffrage movement about?
When you consider the exact wording of the amendment with the history that women were denied voting rights, not men, then that amendment did give women the right to vote. I suppose you could also say it gave people that are neither male nor female the right to vote.
Don't be surprised if I choose to ignore any further nit-picking of the point you attempted to make.

Your answer proves you don't know how the election process works.

I wouldn't be surprised if you ignore it. Most idiots don't want to learn the truth.

Next thing you'll tell me is the 15th Amendment gave blacks the right to vote.

Okay! Explain please. Where did I go wrong.

Since the Constitution was written, STATES have dictated who could vote, the registration process within the State such as how long before an election it must occur, etc. For example, to be able to vote in my State, I have to have registered 30 days or more prior to the election. The federal government had very little say with that process.

The 19th Amendment, the one you claim granted women the right to vote, didn't do that. To say it did would mean that prior to 1920 no woman had ever voted. That's not true. As I said, 8 states has already allowed women to vote with Wyoming doing so as early as 1890. What the 19th Amendment did, although it didn't take away from STATES still controlling things related to who could vote, said that sex could not be used as a factor in limiting voting.

Same with the 15th Amendment. It didn't grant blacks the rights to vote. It said race and previous condition of servitude could not be used as a factor to limiting voting. It the 15th actually did for blacks what you say the 19th did for women, Jim Crow laws wouldn't have kept blacks from voting.

 

[JoeMoma]

I agree with you, at least I wish I could.

It used to be that the ammendment process was used for changes to the constitution.

The ammendment process was used for the following changes:
All races (even blacks) get to vote
Women get to vote
Prohibition
Repeal of Prohibition
President limited to two terms
Voting age is 18 and above.

The above list is not all inclusive.
Recently, right or wrong, same sex marriage was made law by a supreme court ruling. The equal protection clause (14 ammendment I beleive) was used as a basis. Abortion was made also made the law by supreme court ruling. When our supreme court makes a ruling and sets a precendent, it effectively has the power of an ammendment to the constitution. While it's true that an ammendment can overrule a supreme court ruling, the process is so arduous and so seldom happens that each ruling of the Supreme Court has the effect of rewriting the constitution. In effect, the constitution says what the Supreme Court says it says.

Women were given the right to vote through constitutional ammendment. The same could had been accomplish if the Supreme Court had ruled that women have the right to vote.

Women were not given the right to vote through an amendment. The actual wording says "The right of citizens of the United States to vote shall not be denied or abridged by the United States or by any State on account of sex."

Okay! So what was the women's suffrage movement about?
When you consider the exact wording of the amendment with the history that women were denied voting rights, not men, then that amendment did give women the right to vote. I suppose you could also say it gave people that are neither male nor female the right to vote.
Don't be surprised if I choose to ignore any further nit-picking of the point you attempted to make.

Your answer proves you don't know how the election process works.

I wouldn't be surprised if you ignore it. Most idiots don't want to learn the truth.

Next thing you'll tell me is the 15th Amendment gave blacks the right to vote.

Okay! Explain please. Where did I go wrong.

Since the Constitution was written, STATES have dictated who could vote, the registration process within the State such as how long before an election it must occur, etc. For example, to be able to vote in my State, I have to have registered 30 days or more prior to the election. The federal government had very little say with that process.

The 19th Amendment, the one you claim granted women the right to vote, didn't do that. To say it did would mean that prior to 1920 no woman had ever voted. That's not true. As I said, 8 states has already allowed women to vote with Wyoming doing so as early as 1890. What the 19th Amendment did, although it didn't take away from STATES still controlling things related to who could vote, said that sex could not be used as a factor in limiting voting.

Same with the 15th Amendment. It didn't grant blacks the rights to vote. It said race and previous condition of servitude could not be used as a factor to limiting voting. It the 15th actually did for blacks what you say the 19th did for women, Jim Crow laws wouldn't have kept blacks from voting.

You make some good points. That being said, the 19th ammendment did force the remaining states to not deny women the right to vote based on sex (being women). You have a ton of historians to convince if you don't want the 19th ammendment to be considered the women's suffrage amendment which provided women the right to vote for the entire country.

 

[Conservative65]

Women were not given the right to vote through an amendment. The actual wording says "The right of citizens of the United States to vote shall not be denied or abridged by the United States or by any State on account of sex."

Okay! So what was the women's suffrage movement about?
When you consider the exact wording of the amendment with the history that women were denied voting rights, not men, then that amendment did give women the right to vote. I suppose you could also say it gave people that are neither male nor female the right to vote.
Don't be surprised if I choose to ignore any further nit-picking of the point you attempted to make.

Your answer proves you don't know how the election process works.

I wouldn't be surprised if you ignore it. Most idiots don't want to learn the truth.

Next thing you'll tell me is the 15th Amendment gave blacks the right to vote.

Okay! Explain please. Where did I go wrong.

Since the Constitution was written, STATES have dictated who could vote, the registration process within the State such as how long before an election it must occur, etc. For example, to be able to vote in my State, I have to have registered 30 days or more prior to the election. The federal government had very little say with that process.

The 19th Amendment, the one you claim granted women the right to vote, didn't do that. To say it did would mean that prior to 1920 no woman had ever voted. That's not true. As I said, 8 states has already allowed women to vote with Wyoming doing so as early as 1890. What the 19th Amendment did, although it didn't take away from STATES still controlling things related to who could vote, said that sex could not be used as a factor in limiting voting.

Same with the 15th Amendment. It didn't grant blacks the rights to vote. It said race and previous condition of servitude could not be used as a factor to limiting voting. It the 15th actually did for blacks what you say the 19th did for women, Jim Crow laws wouldn't have kept blacks from voting.

You make some good points. That being said, the 19th ammendment did force the remaining states to not deny women the right to vote based on sex (being women). You have a ton of historians to convince if you don't want the 19th ammendment to be considered the women's suffrage amendment which provided women the right to vote for the entire country.

It didn't grant women the right to vote since women in 8 states already had the right to vote.

You're an idiot if you think the 19th did grant women the right to vote. Perhaps you should study history instead of your colon by pulling your head out of your ass.

 

[JoeMoma]

Okay! So what was the women's suffrage movement about?
When you consider the exact wording of the amendment with the history that women were denied voting rights, not men, then that amendment did give women the right to vote. I suppose you could also say it gave people that are neither male nor female the right to vote.
Don't be surprised if I choose to ignore any further nit-picking of the point you attempted to make.

Your answer proves you don't know how the election process works.

I wouldn't be surprised if you ignore it. Most idiots don't want to learn the truth.

Next thing you'll tell me is the 15th Amendment gave blacks the right to vote.

Okay! Explain please. Where did I go wrong.

Since the Constitution was written, STATES have dictated who could vote, the registration process within the State such as how long before an election it must occur, etc. For example, to be able to vote in my State, I have to have registered 30 days or more prior to the election. The federal government had very little say with that process.

The 19th Amendment, the one you claim granted women the right to vote, didn't do that. To say it did would mean that prior to 1920 no woman had ever voted. That's not true. As I said, 8 states has already allowed women to vote with Wyoming doing so as early as 1890. What the 19th Amendment did, although it didn't take away from STATES still controlling things related to who could vote, said that sex could not be used as a factor in limiting voting.

Same with the 15th Amendment. It didn't grant blacks the rights to vote. It said race and previous condition of servitude could not be used as a factor to limiting voting. It the 15th actually did for blacks what you say the 19th did for women, Jim Crow laws wouldn't have kept blacks from voting.

You make some good points. That being said, the 19th ammendment did force the remaining states to not deny women the right to vote based on sex (being women). You have a ton of historians to convince if you don't want the 19th ammendment to be considered the women's suffrage amendment which provided women the right to vote for the entire country.

It didn't grant women the right to vote since women in 8 states already had the right to vote.

You're an idiot if you think the 19th did grant women the right to vote. Perhaps you should study history instead of your colon by pulling your head out of your ass.

Would you be happier if I say the 19th ammendment "guarantees" women the right to vote.
America's Historical Documents

 

[Conservative65]

Your answer proves you don't know how the election process works.

I wouldn't be surprised if you ignore it. Most idiots don't want to learn the truth.

Next thing you'll tell me is the 15th Amendment gave blacks the right to vote.

Okay! Explain please. Where did I go wrong.

Since the Constitution was written, STATES have dictated who could vote, the registration process within the State such as how long before an election it must occur, etc. For example, to be able to vote in my State, I have to have registered 30 days or more prior to the election. The federal government had very little say with that process.

The 19th Amendment, the one you claim granted women the right to vote, didn't do that. To say it did would mean that prior to 1920 no woman had ever voted. That's not true. As I said, 8 states has already allowed women to vote with Wyoming doing so as early as 1890. What the 19th Amendment did, although it didn't take away from STATES still controlling things related to who could vote, said that sex could not be used as a factor in limiting voting.

Same with the 15th Amendment. It didn't grant blacks the rights to vote. It said race and previous condition of servitude could not be used as a factor to limiting voting. It the 15th actually did for blacks what you say the 19th did for women, Jim Crow laws wouldn't have kept blacks from voting.

You make some good points. That being said, the 19th ammendment did force the remaining states to not deny women the right to vote based on sex (being women). You have a ton of historians to convince if you don't want the 19th ammendment to be considered the women's suffrage amendment which provided women the right to vote for the entire country.

It didn't grant women the right to vote since women in 8 states already had the right to vote.

You're an idiot if you think the 19th did grant women the right to vote. Perhaps you should study history instead of your colon by pulling your head out of your ass.

Would you be happier if I say the 19th ammendment "guarantees" women the right to vote.
America's Historical Documents

It's still not a guarantee just like the 15th didn't guarantee blacks the ability to vote.

There are no guarantees. It simply said a State couldn't use sex as a way to limit voting. States proved they could get around what you call a guarantee with Jim Crow laws. Are you willing to say every woman that wanted to vote after the 19th Amendment was able to vote?

 

[JoeMoma]

Okay! Explain please. Where did I go wrong.

Since the Constitution was written, STATES have dictated who could vote, the registration process within the State such as how long before an election it must occur, etc. For example, to be able to vote in my State, I have to have registered 30 days or more prior to the election. The federal government had very little say with that process.

The 19th Amendment, the one you claim granted women the right to vote, didn't do that. To say it did would mean that prior to 1920 no woman had ever voted. That's not true. As I said, 8 states has already allowed women to vote with Wyoming doing so as early as 1890. What the 19th Amendment did, although it didn't take away from STATES still controlling things related to who could vote, said that sex could not be used as a factor in limiting voting.

Same with the 15th Amendment. It didn't grant blacks the rights to vote. It said race and previous condition of servitude could not be used as a factor to limiting voting. It the 15th actually did for blacks what you say the 19th did for women, Jim Crow laws wouldn't have kept blacks from voting.

You make some good points. That being said, the 19th ammendment did force the remaining states to not deny women the right to vote based on sex (being women). You have a ton of historians to convince if you don't want the 19th ammendment to be considered the women's suffrage amendment which provided women the right to vote for the entire country.

It didn't grant women the right to vote since women in 8 states already had the right to vote.

You're an idiot if you think the 19th did grant women the right to vote. Perhaps you should study history instead of your colon by pulling your head out of your ass.

Would you be happier if I say the 19th ammendment "guarantees" women the right to vote.
America's Historical Documents

It's still not a guarantee just like the 15th didn't guarantee blacks the ability to vote.

There are no guarantees. It simply said a State couldn't use sex as a way to limit voting. States proved they could get around what you call a guarantee with Jim Crow laws. Are you willing to say every woman that wanted to vote after the 19th Amendment was able to vote?

Well please take this issue up with the official historical website that I linked to in the previous post. Millions of people are being misinformed and it is your civil duty as an American to correct this.

 

[Conservative65]

Since the Constitution was written, STATES have dictated who could vote, the registration process within the State such as how long before an election it must occur, etc. For example, to be able to vote in my State, I have to have registered 30 days or more prior to the election. The federal government had very little say with that process.

The 19th Amendment, the one you claim granted women the right to vote, didn't do that. To say it did would mean that prior to 1920 no woman had ever voted. That's not true. As I said, 8 states has already allowed women to vote with Wyoming doing so as early as 1890. What the 19th Amendment did, although it didn't take away from STATES still controlling things related to who could vote, said that sex could not be used as a factor in limiting voting.

Same with the 15th Amendment. It didn't grant blacks the rights to vote. It said race and previous condition of servitude could not be used as a factor to limiting voting. It the 15th actually did for blacks what you say the 19th did for women, Jim Crow laws wouldn't have kept blacks from voting.

You make some good points. That being said, the 19th ammendment did force the remaining states to not deny women the right to vote based on sex (being women). You have a ton of historians to convince if you don't want the 19th ammendment to be considered the women's suffrage amendment which provided women the right to vote for the entire country.

It didn't grant women the right to vote since women in 8 states already had the right to vote.

You're an idiot if you think the 19th did grant women the right to vote. Perhaps you should study history instead of your colon by pulling your head out of your ass.

Would you be happier if I say the 19th ammendment "guarantees" women the right to vote.
America's Historical Documents

It's still not a guarantee just like the 15th didn't guarantee blacks the ability to vote.

There are no guarantees. It simply said a State couldn't use sex as a way to limit voting. States proved they could get around what you call a guarantee with Jim Crow laws. Are you willing to say every woman that wanted to vote after the 19th Amendment was able to vote?

Well please take this issue up with the official historical website that I linked to in the previous post. Millions of people are being misinformed and it is you civil duty as an American to correct this.

Someone needs to take it up with whatever dumbass you had as a teacher that taught you that it did. I bet you think Lincoln freed the slaves, too.

 

[JoeMoma]

You make some good points. That being said, the 19th ammendment did force the remaining states to not deny women the right to vote based on sex (being women). You have a ton of historians to convince if you don't want the 19th ammendment to be considered the women's suffrage amendment which provided women the right to vote for the entire country.

It didn't grant women the right to vote since women in 8 states already had the right to vote.

You're an idiot if you think the 19th did grant women the right to vote. Perhaps you should study history instead of your colon by pulling your head out of your ass.

Would you be happier if I say the 19th ammendment "guarantees" women the right to vote.
America's Historical Documents

It's still not a guarantee just like the 15th didn't guarantee blacks the ability to vote.

There are no guarantees. It simply said a State couldn't use sex as a way to limit voting. States proved they could get around what you call a guarantee with Jim Crow laws. Are you willing to say every woman that wanted to vote after the 19th Amendment was able to vote?

Well please take this issue up with the official historical website that I linked to in the previous post. Millions of people are being misinformed and it is you civil duty as an American to correct this.

Someone needs to take it up with whatever dumbass you had as a teacher that taught you that it did. I bet you think Lincoln freed the slaves, too.

Well, I suggest you get the official national archives corrected before you start working on the high school teachers. Good news, my high school history teacher has long retired so you don't really need to bother with him.

 

[Conservative65]

It didn't grant women the right to vote since women in 8 states already had the right to vote.

You're an idiot if you think the 19th did grant women the right to vote. Perhaps you should study history instead of your colon by pulling your head out of your ass.

Would you be happier if I say the 19th ammendment "guarantees" women the right to vote.
America's Historical Documents

It's still not a guarantee just like the 15th didn't guarantee blacks the ability to vote.

There are no guarantees. It simply said a State couldn't use sex as a way to limit voting. States proved they could get around what you call a guarantee with Jim Crow laws. Are you willing to say every woman that wanted to vote after the 19th Amendment was able to vote?

Well please take this issue up with the official historical website that I linked to in the previous post. Millions of people are being misinformed and it is you civil duty as an American to correct this.

Someone needs to take it up with whatever dumbass you had as a teacher that taught you that it did. I bet you think Lincoln freed the slaves, too.

Well, I suggest you get the official national archives corrected before you start working on the high school teachers. Good news, my high school history teacher has long retired so you don't really need to bother with him.

You're the result of his inadequacy in teaching.

 

[Fair&Balanced]

Minimum wage laws are not unconstitutional simply because they have been shoved under the "commerce clause" exception. Agree or disagree with that, either way though the logic of saying that makes it constitutional is sound.

As for the argument of "why $15 and not $100?" that's just childish. How much do you make a year? $40k? Why not $100K? Oh that's right because one can support a REASONABLE wage increase whilst disagreeing with an unreasonable one.

Its not childish, it is proving a point to you economically illiterate dumb ass liberals.


No matter what fucking dollar an hour minimum wage is.....


You are still making minimum wage


You are still bottom of the fucking ladder poor.

No shit moron but we can control where the bottom is.

 

[JoeMoma]

Would you be happier if I say the 19th ammendment "guarantees" women the right to vote.
America's Historical Documents

It's still not a guarantee just like the 15th didn't guarantee blacks the ability to vote.

There are no guarantees. It simply said a State couldn't use sex as a way to limit voting. States proved they could get around what you call a guarantee with Jim Crow laws. Are you willing to say every woman that wanted to vote after the 19th Amendment was able to vote?

Well please take this issue up with the official historical website that I linked to in the previous post. Millions of people are being misinformed and it is you civil duty as an American to correct this.

Someone needs to take it up with whatever dumbass you had as a teacher that taught you that it did. I bet you think Lincoln freed the slaves, too.

Well, I suggest you get the official national archives corrected before you start working on the high school teachers. Good news, my high school history teacher has long retired so you don't really need to bother with him.

You're the result of his inadequacy in teaching.

From the national archives website that I linked earlier.


"Passed by Congress June 4, 1919, and ratified on August 18, 1920, the 19th amendment guarantees all American women the right to vote. Achieving this milestone required a lengthy and difficult struggle; victory took decades of agitation and protest. Beginning in the mid-19th century, several generations of woman suffrage supporters lectured, wrote, marched, lobbied, and practiced civil disobedience to achieve what many Americans considered a radical change of the Constitution. Few early supporters lived to see final victory in 1920."

 

[JoeMoma]

Minimum wage laws are not unconstitutional simply because they have been shoved under the "commerce clause" exception. Agree or disagree with that, either way though the logic of saying that makes it constitutional is sound.

As for the argument of "why $15 and not $100?" that's just childish. How much do you make a year? $40k? Why not $100K? Oh that's right because one can support a REASONABLE wage increase whilst disagreeing with an unreasonable one.

Its not childish, it is proving a point to you economically illiterate dumb ass liberals.


No matter what fucking dollar an hour minimum wage is.....


You are still making minimum wage


You are still bottom of the fucking ladder poor.

No shit moron but we can control where the bottom is.

And the market will in a short amount of time adjust such that the minimum wage is still not considered a living wage.