ihopehefails
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- Oct 3, 2009
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- #41
Absolutely...'cause it's worked, so WELL, in the past....right???
If you actually knew what you were talking about you would see that it was the NAZI state that removed people's rights to associate freely with jews. Germans, left to their own devices, would not have done all the things the NAZI state made them do.
most of them had no problem with those laws.
Just like certain people of today some people then didn't mind removing a person's freedom to associate when they felt the cause was justified. What is the difference between not allowing someone to associate with who they wish by not allowing them to use their business and someone not being allowed to associate with who they wish because they were jewish? Do you see how they are both an attack on someone's personal freedom to do what they want?