I am not an attorney and have some questions about this statement. Asking this of Jillian, George and Liability.
From what I have gathered in this thread the Supreme Court did not rule that the defendant was not entitled to any damages, but rather they ruled against the particular argument that the prosecutor was guilty of malfeasance. Is that correct? If that is correct, then does the defendant not also have other avenues to pursue that would bring him compensation? Could he not file another complaint that would bring him compensation?
Immie
To clarify: When I said that he got fucked, I was talking about the undeniable fact that prosecutors withheld exculpatory evidence. That is absolutely not supposed to happen. Period. In his case, it clearly led to the man's conviction and since his blood type was different (the robbery case) it caused him not to testify in the homicide case. All in all, it was a screw job.
When he sued as a civil plaintiff, his suit came in the form of a §1983 claim. According to the SCOTUS decision,
that ultimately became his sole legal theory at the civil trial. Thus, when the SCOTUS determined that it LACKED a sufficient legal basis (that is, the "failure to train" theory was inadequate as a matter of law in his case), that left the plaintiff without any verdict or judgment in his favor.
I would have to defer to civil practitioners to answer the question of whether he has any other possible avenues to seek some recompense. But
the general rule is that once he has sought his relief by choosing his avenue (i.e., a Federal suit or a State suit), he is
not allowed to take a proverbial
second bite at the apple.
But again, I don't do plaintiff's work in civil matters, and I'm not doing legal research to make a more authoritative assertion: so I'll defer to others for a more complete answer to that question.