No, I'm not wrong.
The definition of "bear arms" is "render military service" and "militia duty".
Here's the main document I use to prove it.
"but no person religiously scrupulous shall be compelled to bear arms."
The clause they were talking about.
What Mr Gerry said: "Now, I am apprehensive, sir, that this clause would give an opportunity to the people in power to destroy the constitution itself. They can declare who are those religiously scrupulous, and prevent them from bearing arms."
"Now, if we give a discretionary power to exclude those from militia duty who have religious scruples, we may as well make no provision on this head. "
Pretty clear Mr Gerry sees "bear arms" and "militia duty" as the same thing.
"Mr. Jackson was willing to accommodate. He thought the expression was, "No one, religiously scrupulous of bearing arms, shall be compelled to render military service, in person, upon paying an equivalent.""
Mr Jackson said "render military service."
In fact the different versions of the 2A went back and forth.
June 8th 1789
"but no person religiously scrupulous of bearing arms shall be compelled to render military service in person."
August 17th 1789
"but no person religiously scrupulous shall be compelled to bear arms."
August 24th 1789
"but no one religiously scrupulous of bearing arms shall be compelled to render military service in person."
They weren't sure whether to use one or the other.
If we look at the original state RBA clauses we see:
"1776 North Carolina:
That the people have a right to bear arms, for the defence of the State;"
The right to bear arms for the "defence of the State".
So, you're saying North Carolina envisaged people walking around with guns just in case someone invaded the state?
"1776 Pennsylvania:
That the people have a right to bear arms for the defence of themselves and the state;"
"1780 Massachusetts: The people have a right to keep and to bear arms for the common defence."
These are different versions and it wasn't until 1817 that "themselves" changed to "himself", ie, collective "common defence" equals "defence of themselves" changed to individual defence (after the 2A was written) with "defence of himself"
"1817 Mississippi:
Every citizen has a right to bear arms, in defence of himself and the State."
SENTIMENTS ON A PEACE ESTABLISHMENT, 1783
George Washington
In this document by a dude known as "George Washington", you might have heard of him, he said:
"every Citizen who enjoys the protection of a free Government, owes not only a proportion of his property, but even of his personal services to the defence of it, and consequently that the Citizens of America... from 18 to 50 Years of Age should be borne on the Militia Rolls,"
"by making it universally reputable to bear Arms and disgraceful to decline having a share in the performance of Military duties; in fine, by keeping up in Peace "a well regulated, and disciplined Militia," we shall take the fairest and best method to preserve, for a long time to come, the happiness, dignity and Independence of our Country.“
He said you could be "borne on the Militia Rolls", borne being the past participle of "bear".
He also talked about "bear Arms" and "Military duties" in the same sentence.
Even in Heller they spoke about it:
"At the time of the founding, as now, to "bear" meant to "carry.""
Yep, and it still does. "Stool" also means a "poop". Doesn't mean if the teacher says "sit on the stool" he's not meaning "sit on the poop". Words have different meanings. To suggest a word CAN mean something it MUST mean something is ridiculous in the English language.
"When used with "arms," however, the term has a meaning that refers to carrying for a particular purpose--confrontation."
This is important. It means "confrontation". They've used "confrontation" because it works with self defense and the meaning it actually has. It's a very political choice of word, because EVERYTHING ELSE they talk about doesn't point to self defense.
"In numerous instances, "bear arms" was unambiguously used to refer to the carrying of weapons outside of an organized militia."
Yes, but not outside of a "militia". They're trying to be political again. They point to the state clauses I showed before. That you could "bear arms" for "common defence". It still doesn't mean "self defense". It means "collective defense" before 1817 in Mississippi, and therefore in the 2A.
"that "bear arms" was not limited to the carrying of arms in a militia."
Here they use "carrying of arms" as in "being in the militia", rather than actually just carrying them around in every day life.
"The phrase "bear Arms" also had at the time of the founding an idiomatic meaning that was significantly different from its natural meaning: "to serve as a soldier, do military service, fight" or "to wage war.""
Here we go. This is the meaning that we see when the Founding Fathers were discussing the SECOND AMENDMENT. Things can mean other things, but in the sense of the Second Amendment we KNOW what it means. Most people just choose to ignore it.
So, I'm not wrong.