I am unaware of time “extensions” on prophecies, although I am aware that there is content in the Book of Daniel that Christians have used as a sign of Jesus to come. (I know this because unrelenting Christians have continued to bring it up to me in a very argumentative way, and I am clearly uncomfortable as they do it, so I appreciate your respectful manner.)I have a question that I truly do not mean to be offensive, but rather is puzzling and bewildering to me. In Judaism, if a prophecy is not fulfilled in a certain/reasonable amount of time, it was considered to be a false/mistaken prophecy. The Jewish prophecy of a human, earthly king was made over 2,500 years ago. Daniel's prophecy of this king was 70 weeks, also calculated as 483 or 490 years. Daniel lived about a half-century before our current dating system, a time when Jews were clearly expecting the Messiah. They were even pointing out that Herod's rebuilding of the second temple (making it the third temple) was a sign.
Again, I have no wish to put you (especially)--or anyone of the Jewish faith--on the spot. It's just something I keep wondering about.
All I can tell you is that Jesus has not met the criteria for Messiah, even after 2,000 years. To say that “well, he will EVENTUALLY” strikes me as weak. I, for example, could say I am the Messiah, and in the year 4045, when nothing has come true, people could say, “well, eventually.”
Also, NO Jew would claim to be the son of Gd. There is no evidence that Jesus made such a claim, other than others misinterpreting his words to ordain him as a deity.