No personal land ownership changed hands during WWI.
What about public land?
It is illegal and war crime to confiscate homes by war.
Really? What happened to the homes owned by Germans deported from
eastern Europe after WWII?
And that is the whole point, that what Israel did was a war crime.
It is illegal to disposes rightful owners by force.
The Ottoman government gave up their land, as you know.
No one else has ever done that.
OMG! You're such a liar. Or really stupid.
Literally everyone in history that won a war took land from the losers.
That's why Muslims aren't only sitting in Saudi Arabia in the spot where their poisonous
religion began.
Public land is always owned by the local people, because it is used for things like shared grazing.
It was illegal to deport Germans from eastern Europe after WWII, and even illegal to confiscate their lands.
Creating Poland did not cause any deportations or changes in land ownership, only in nationality.
The Ottoman government has no land ownership in Palestine except for a few government offices.
They gave up what little they had, since they owed compensation for their original invasion.
You really do not know any history.
Almost always when you invade, you do NOT confiscate any land, but the invader simply starts taxing the population.
About the only exception was when the British beat the native Americans, with the intent of genocide, to take their land.
The Turks also did this to the Armenians.
Otherwise it almost never happened.
The Moslem religion and the Arabic language started in Saudi Arabia, but that has noting to do with the Arabs who always lived in places like Egypt, Palestine, Jordan, Lebanon, etc. They did not come from Saudi Arabia, but always lived there.
Don't forget that the Canaanites and Hebrew are also Arab, and clearly they did not come from Saudi Arabia.