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On another thread:
I assume this applies to the zionist terrorist heroes as well, yes?When your Islamic terrorist heroes wage war from civilian areas, those areas become legitimate targets.
Good point. Land ownership never changed.According to all of the history I have read, Israel came out of the 1948 war with no land. I have repeatedly asked for some evidence that Israel had legally acquired any land. Duck, dodge, and weave has been the only response.
And they have to duck this or lie.
What inherent right does a people have to forceably take back territory it's ancestors occupied (and, it's questionable whether they even occupied the entire area you reference) thousands of years ago?
...
My ancestors are from Wales and Norway and Denmark. I have no right to go there and take anything.
The "right to take back land" which 60s is referring to is the legal right to sovereignty obtained between 1917 and 1948.
And, yes, actually, you probably DO have the right to return to Wales, Norway or Denmark -- depending on their nationality laws. The real question, though, is whether or not Denmark is permitted to attempt to retrieve her sovereign territory lost in a war of aggression committed by a neighboring sovereign.
Because no one has a right to take something from another against their will, unless you believe that might makes right.
Right implies an entitlement...
In my view, the right of Jews (or for that matter Palestinians) to "take back" anything is no different then the "right" of any people to choose to settle somewhere via the legal purchasing of property. It's not a "right" per se. I view sacred sites differently though - a people has a right to access to and protection of their sacred sites.
Then Israel and the Temple Mount should immediately be returned to the people it belongs to -- the Jewish people. Since no one has a right to take something from another against their will.
The hundred year old policy of moving the Palestinians out and moving the settlers in.Would stealing or destroying property and crops be considered terrorism?
It depends on the motivation.
Coyote
I think at times in this thread you are confusing the rights of the States of Israel, Jordan and Egypt with the rights of the peoples of Israel and Palestine.
Did Jordan and Egypt have the "right" to take Gaza, Judea, Samaria and the Jewish Quarter?Israel is a recognized country. It has been since 1948.Israel is only defending its illegal settler colonial project. That is not legal self defense. You can't defend aggression.
There is nothing illegal about her.
There is nothing illegal about Jews taking back their land in Judea and Samaria, including the Jewish Quarter of Jerusalem, which they had been expelled from by the Hashemite Arabs in 1948.
Israel defends its RIGHT to be a country, a Jewish State, and the homeland of the Jewish People/Nation. She defends ALL who live within her and in the Jewish people's ancient land of Judea and Samaria, Jews and non- Jews.
Winning, yet?????
Depends on how they go about doing it doesn't it?
Like any other people they have every right to purchase property and settle there.
They have no other "right" to "take back" anything.
And to expel all Jews from those areas? In an offensive war?
Israel wins those areas back in a defensive war from the same countries and other Arab ones.
What rights did Egypt and Jordan have which Israel does not?
This is 2017.
What inherent right does a people have to forceably take back territory it's ancestors occupied (and, it's questionable whether they even occupied the entire area you reference) thousands of years ago?
The only "right" is the right that any people have to purchase property, live in peace, freedom and security, raise their families according to the standards believe in.
My ancestors are from Wales and Norway and Denmark. I have no right to go there and take anything.
Please, no " I am from here or there......" Those countries may not be in danger now, but they could be in future decades, as they were during WWII.
You have no feelings for any one of those countries, that is within you and your choices.
The Jewish people/Nation never stopped feeling a connection to their ancient homeland and dreaming of again being sovereign over it. And it is the same with all indigenous people in the world.
Their connection to their ancient land is their right, and no other people can take it away from them, even if the land is not under their sovereignty anymore.
Jews are not, nor did they with the Mandate for Palestine, demand ALL of their ancestral homeland.
Proof?
The Hashemites were given 78% of the Mandate in 1925.
Did the Jews attack the Hashemites and attempt to take any of that land back, even during or after the 1967 war? No.
Israel gave up the part of Gaza where there were Jewish communities in 2005.
In other words, all Jews and Israel keep doing is giving up on land, hoping that there will be peace with the Arabs who live in the Mandate the way a Peace treaty was achieved with Egypt and Jordan.
Jews went about becoming sovereign over ANY part of their ancient land LEGALLY. They did not invade in 1892 or in the 1920s or later with a military force to take over all of their ancient land. That never happened, and will never happened.
The Arab leaders can find it within themselves to stop the refusal to negotiate and eventually live next to Israel, she will be more than pleased to negotiate with them as she did with Egypt and Jordan who had land belonging to the Mandate and never thought or negotiating in behalf of the Arabs in the Mandate to have their own State. One which was refused twice before 1948 by the Arab League.
Coyote,
Israel is a country with laws.
It follows the rules of war, as any other country.
Those who break from those rules in the military are punished, and there are always those exemptions.
Hamas and PA do not follow any rule of war as known by the West.
What does it mean when it fights a country which DOES follow such rules?
Israel proper has no settlers?
That is not what Hamas, PA and others say as they view ALL Jews in Mandate Palestine as settlers.
Why are Jews returning to their ancient homeland after being expelled in 1920 or 1929 or 1948 being called settlers?
Did they not have the right to those homes and lands where they lived? Did they not buy those homes and much of that land and live on it until expelled do to an offensive war?
Because Israel got that land back and Jews got to again live on their lands, or close to them wherever the Arabs were not living, that is considered illegal settlements but the Arab ones which came to be after 1948 are perfectly legal and not called settlements at all?
Could you explain to me this logic?
To answer your next post.
Jews bought land since the 1850s. Even so, they were attacked or simply expelled from 1920 on.
Do these Jews have a right to fight to get their land and homes back or not?
I have no "one liners".
You assumed that there were many more attacks on Arabs than the ones we posted. Please post them, and consider the circumstances and the punishment, if any, either side received.
RE: What percentage of Israeli settlers are terrorists?
※→ Shusha, Coyote, et al,
This is a recurring question. A very dynamic question. Not the easiest of issues to address.
(REFERENCE QUESTIONS)Why not?Depends on how they go about doing it doesn't it?
Like any other people they have every right to purchase property and settle there.
They have no other "right" to "take back" anything.
How many wars does Israel have to fight before the issue is put to rest?
Sovereignty (absolute control) and the Right to Purchase Property and Settle there (a matter of Ownership) are two completely different issues.
(COMMENT)
Israel has fought three+ wars.
The Areas in dispute was the territory controlled by Jordan (the West Bank), Jerusalem and the area controlled by Egypt (the Gaza Strip).
There are Peace Treaties that cover these territories for peace. The Palestinians did not control anything and were not a party to the treaties.
Sovereignty wise, by what Right do the Palestinians claim anything?
Most Respectfully,
R
RE: What percentage of Israeli settlers are terrorists?
※→ Shusha, Coyote, et al,
This is a recurring question. A very dynamic question. Not the easiest of issues to address.
(REFERENCE QUESTIONS)Why not?Depends on how they go about doing it doesn't it?
Like any other people they have every right to purchase property and settle there.
They have no other "right" to "take back" anything.
How many wars does Israel have to fight before the issue is put to rest?
Sovereignty (absolute control) and the Right to Purchase Property and Settle there (a matter of Ownership) are two completely different issues.
(COMMENT)
Israel has fought three+ wars.
The Areas in dispute was the territory controlled by Jordan (the West Bank), Jerusalem and the area controlled by Egypt (the Gaza Strip).
There are Peace Treaties that cover these territories for peace. The Palestinians did not control anything and were not a party to the treaties.
Sovereignty wise, by what Right do the Palestinians claim anything?
Most Respectfully,
RNot with the Palestinians. The Palestinians never had an army. It has always been Israeli troops attacking Palestinian civilians.Israel has fought three+ wars.
Now, back to the topic of Jewish "settlers".
The problem with the Palestinian POV is that it conflates the issues of personal property ownership and sovereignty -- calling for limitations on property rights for people simply because of their ethnic background. And, of course, it applies this unequally to only one side of the conflict, all the while, calling Israel apartheid.
Personal property ownership has nothing to do with sovereignty. The existence of people of a certain ethnicity owning property does not in any way affect the sovereignty of a nation. Have you looked at the "swiss cheese full of holes" that makes up Israel with its Arab neighborhoods? And yet -- Israel is still a sovereign nation. There is absolutely no reason why Palestine can't also be a sovereign nation if Jews happen to live there.
This seriously should be the end of the argument about Jewish settlements. But, if you want to continue to argue against settlements why are we only arguing about Jewish ones? Why not discuss the Arab ones. Such as Nabi Saleh?
The mandate was not a land transfer. The Mandate had no land to give. The Mandate was Jewish citizenship along with the other citizens.
Arrrggghhh. You get so much right and then lose it on the simplest, most basic principle because you don't happen to like it.
Let's take your first sentence and say I agree with you. The Mandate for Palestine was not a land transfer. Like all the other Mandates none of them were land transfers. Strictly speaking, "land transfer" is inappropriate terminology anyway. Land was never transferred from one sovereign to another (as were other territories transferred, or ceded, from Turkey to Greece, Italy, etc). The Mandate territories rather saw the dissolution of Turkish sovereignty and the creation of several entirely new sovereigns. The question, then, is how those new sovereigns came into being.
So. Let's walk through this. Turkey renounced the territory. This makes the territory terra nullius -- territory under the sovereignty of no State. The rights to create a State are invested in the two groups of peoples who make up the two ethnically distinct cultures in the territory, each with rights based on long-term residence or indigeneity in the territory. The persons responsible for protecting the rights of both peoples was the Allied Powers, and, eventually, the British for that particular Mandate. With me so far?
The Mandate for Palestine, which whether you like it or not, is a legal document, expressing the intent of the Allied Powers who were the ones responsible for putting into practice the Treaty of Lausanne, specifically the phrase in Article 16 which states: the future of these territories and islands being settled or to be settled by the parties concerned.
Let's say we even agree that the parties concerned are NOT the Allied Powers, who are only the protectors of rights but have no rights themselves. Let's say we agree that the "parties concerned" are the two peoples residing in the territory, with rights to sovereignty. Still with me?
Okay. So how does a peoples with the rights to sovereignty actually create a brand new, never-before-seen sovereign State? We've been through this before. There are four criteria: they have a permanent population; a defined territory, they form a government, and they develop the capacity to enter into relations with other States. They often also, though (as you correctly point out) not necessary, become recognized by other States.
All of these things were achieved by Syria, Iraq, Lebanon, Jordan and Israel. And there isn't much room to argue with any of it, other than perhaps small matters of detail.
Here's where you go terribly wrong:The Mandate was not to create a Jewish state.
No where is there a prohibition for the Jewish people which prevents them from forming a State. Whether from the Mandate documents itself or from other international law -- there is no prohibition on any peoples forming a State for self-determination. On the contrary, as you constantly remind us, that right to independence, territorial integrity and sovereignty is an INHERENT right of all peoples. You absolutely can not continue to remind us of that basic concept while simultaneously prohibiting the Jewish people from that right.
This is one of the clunkers in your argument. The successor state of Palestine was already determined. Its international borders were already defined by post WWI treaties. The land inside those borders would be Palestine. The Turkish Citizens inside that territory would automatically become Palestinian citizens by international law. (The rule of state succession, 1907 Hague Regulations) This was reaffirmed by the 1925 Palestinian Citizenship Order where all Turkish citizens in that territory would be citizens of Palestine.So. Let's walk through this. Turkey renounced the territory. This makes the territory terra nullius -- territory under the sovereignty of no State.
(COMMENT)They have militias.
(COMMENT)This is one of the clunkers in your argument. The successor state of Palestine was already determined. Its international borders were already defined by post WWI treaties.
(COMMENT)The land inside those borders would be Palestine. The Turkish Citizens inside that territory would automatically become Palestinian citizens by international law. (The rule of state succession, 1907 Hague Regulations) This was reaffirmed by the 1925 Palestinian Citizenship Order where all Turkish citizens in that territory would be citizens of Palestine.
[/quote]This was the starting point. The Palestinians were the people of the place with the standard list of inalienable rights. Much of what happened after that were violations of those inalienable rights.
(COMMENT)Now, back to the topic of Jewish "settlers".
The problem with the Palestinian POV is that it conflates the issues of personal property ownership and sovereignty -- calling for limitations on property rights for people simply because of their ethnic background. And, of course, it applies this unequally to only one side of the conflict, all the while, calling Israel apartheid.
Personal property ownership has nothing to do with sovereignty. The existence of people of a certain ethnicity owning property does not in any way affect the sovereignty of a nation. Have you looked at the "swiss cheese full of holes" that makes up Israel with its Arab neighborhoods? And yet -- Israel is still a sovereign nation. There is absolutely no reason why Palestine can't also be a sovereign nation if Jews happen to live there.
This seriously should be the end of the argument about Jewish settlements. But, if you want to continue to argue against settlements why are we only arguing about Jewish ones? Why not discuss the Arab ones. Such as Nabi Saleh?
I don't know...for example, the settlers want Israel to incorporate them. They exert enormous political leverage.
I don't know...for example, the settlers want Israel to incorporate them. They exert enormous political leverage.
This is one of the clunkers in your argument. The successor state of Palestine was already determined. Its international borders were already defined by post WWI treaties. The land inside those borders would be Palestine.
I am hated here because I am a Jew, but not a zionist.
A05 Mavrommatis Jerusalem Concessions • this being Judgment #5
✪ Judgment of 26 March 1925 (including the text of the declaration of M. Altamira)