What percentage of Israeli settlers are terrorists?

On another thread:
When your Islamic terrorist heroes wage war from civilian areas, those areas become legitimate targets.
I assume this applies to the zionist terrorist heroes as well, yes?
 
According to all of the history I have read, Israel came out of the 1948 war with no land. I have repeatedly asked for some evidence that Israel had legally acquired any land. Duck, dodge, and weave has been the only response.
Good point. Land ownership never changed.

And they have to duck this or lie.

Land ownership has nothing to do with sovereignty. Sovereignty certainly changed. No ducking. No lies. The prior sovereignty was dissolved. New sovereignty arose.
 
I think the reason there are no stats on this is because, as has been shown, this is a stet funded system of terrorism.
 
What inherent right does a people have to forceably take back territory it's ancestors occupied (and, it's questionable whether they even occupied the entire area you reference) thousands of years ago?
...
My ancestors are from Wales and Norway and Denmark. I have no right to go there and take anything.

The "right to take back land" which 60s is referring to is the legal right to sovereignty obtained between 1917 and 1948.

And, yes, actually, you probably DO have the right to return to Wales, Norway or Denmark -- depending on their nationality laws. The real question, though, is whether or not Denmark is permitted to attempt to retrieve her sovereign territory lost in a war of aggression committed by a neighboring sovereign.

He was referring to Judea and Samaria - lands that were part of the Israel of antiquity. That is what I assumed he was referring to because I've heard that many times.

I don't have any "right" to return to those regions - my ancestors left, and with that any associated rights of place. They formed new homes under new skies.

So I don't have any greater "rights" of place than anyone else. What rights I have are granted by the nation - in other words Wales can decide that anyone of Welsh ancestry has a right to immigrate back to Wales and receive citizenship and associated rights.

Interesting question with Denmark too....and that makes the question of "rights" murkier because in ancient conflicts particularly, it can be impossible to sort out who was the initial aggressor and bounderies and nations rose and fell frequently.
 
Because no one has a right to take something from another against their will, unless you believe that might makes right.

Right implies an entitlement...

In my view, the right of Jews (or for that matter Palestinians) to "take back" anything is no different then the "right" of any people to choose to settle somewhere via the legal purchasing of property. It's not a "right" per se. I view sacred sites differently though - a people has a right to access to and protection of their sacred sites.

Then Israel and the Temple Mount should immediately be returned to the people it belongs to -- the Jewish people. Since no one has a right to take something from another against their will.

Should it? How can you be sure it was taken against their will even - this was THOUSANDS of years ago. The people there now - the people who have been there for the past century - the people who have been there for the past millinium have nothing to do with the events that transpired then. Since then other people have made it their home.

No one has the RIGHT to take anything from another against their will - only in terms of modern ethics. We can't go back and pick apart history and decide who has what right to where when the ethics of the time were very different.

It's also how I view the "right of return" - it only applies to those actually affected, not their progeny down through the generations.
 
Coyote

I think at times in this thread you are confusing the rights of the States of Israel, Jordan and Egypt with the rights of the peoples of Israel and Palestine.

Possibly...but I'm not sure.

To me rights imply an active not passive concept. If there is a right, the individual has the right to exercise it. And when it comes into conflict with the rights of others...what then?
 
Israel is only defending its illegal settler colonial project. That is not legal self defense. You can't defend aggression.
Israel is a recognized country. It has been since 1948.

There is nothing illegal about her.

There is nothing illegal about Jews taking back their land in Judea and Samaria, including the Jewish Quarter of Jerusalem, which they had been expelled from by the Hashemite Arabs in 1948.

Israel defends its RIGHT to be a country, a Jewish State, and the homeland of the Jewish People/Nation. She defends ALL who live within her and in the Jewish people's ancient land of Judea and Samaria, Jews and non- Jews.


Winning, yet?????

Depends on how they go about doing it doesn't it?

Like any other people they have every right to purchase property and settle there.

They have no other "right" to "take back" anything.
Did Jordan and Egypt have the "right" to take Gaza, Judea, Samaria and the Jewish Quarter?
And to expel all Jews from those areas? In an offensive war?

Israel wins those areas back in a defensive war from the same countries and other Arab ones.


What rights did Egypt and Jordan have which Israel does not?

This is 2017.

What inherent right does a people have to forceably take back territory it's ancestors occupied (and, it's questionable whether they even occupied the entire area you reference) thousands of years ago?

The only "right" is the right that any people have to purchase property, live in peace, freedom and security, raise their families according to the standards believe in.

My ancestors are from Wales and Norway and Denmark. I have no right to go there and take anything.

Please, no " I am from here or there......" Those countries may not be in danger now, but they could be in future decades, as they were during WWII.

No. If I choose to I AM going to use similar rights of ancestry. You don't get to decide who can and who can not. Nor does it matter if a country is in danger - that has no bearing on rights of people or individuals.

You have no feelings for any one of those countries, that is within you and your choices.

And you KNOW this how? This statement you casually throw out as if it were a "fact". You do not know what feelings I have for the countries my ancestors came from. My grandmother taught my father Welsh and he taught me a few hymns in Welsh. My mother has a very old photograph of our family farm in Norway. So don't talk like you know anything or that my love for my ancestral places is somehow of lesser value.

The Jewish people/Nation never stopped feeling a connection to their ancient homeland and dreaming of again being sovereign over it. And it is the same with all indigenous people in the world.
Their connection to their ancient land is their right, and no other people can take it away from them, even if the land is not under their sovereignty anymore.

And that is absolutely fine. But - that doesn't give you the right to diminish other people's connection to place including those who have also resided in those lands for hundreds if not thousands of years or - just a few generations. You have no right to take that from them.

Jews are not, nor did they with the Mandate for Palestine, demand ALL of their ancestral homeland.

Proof?
The Hashemites were given 78% of the Mandate in 1925.
Did the Jews attack the Hashemites and attempt to take any of that land back, even during or after the 1967 war? No.

Israel gave up the part of Gaza where there were Jewish communities in 2005.

In other words, all Jews and Israel keep doing is giving up on land, hoping that there will be peace with the Arabs who live in the Mandate the way a Peace treaty was achieved with Egypt and Jordan.

Jews went about becoming sovereign over ANY part of their ancient land LEGALLY. They did not invade in 1892 or in the 1920s or later with a military force to take over all of their ancient land. That never happened, and will never happened.

The Arab leaders can find it within themselves to stop the refusal to negotiate and eventually live next to Israel, she will be more than pleased to negotiate with them as she did with Egypt and Jordan who had land belonging to the Mandate and never thought or negotiating in behalf of the Arabs in the Mandate to have their own State. One which was refused twice before 1948 by the Arab League.

I'm not sure I understand the point of your argument here. I've never quibbled over Israel's right to exist or the Jewish right to a homeland.
 
Coyote,

Israel is a country with laws.
It follows the rules of war, as any other country.
Those who break from those rules in the military are punished, and there are always those exemptions.

AND, like any other country - they can act badly. They can look the other way at settlers stoning Palestinians trying to go to school yet come down hard on Palestinians stoning settlers.

Hamas and PA do not follow any rule of war as known by the West.
What does it mean when it fights a country which DOES follow such rules?

Agree.

Israel proper has no settlers?
That is not what Hamas, PA and others say as they view ALL Jews in Mandate Palestine as settlers.

I do not share that view nor does much of the non-Arab international community. Settlements have broadly been defined as civilian enclaves in land captured by Israel in the 1967 war. Even Israel refers to them as "settlers".

What does Israel say about settlements?

The settlers and their supporters cite the Jewish Bible, thousands of years of Jewish history, and Israel's need for "strategic depth" as reasons for living in the West Bank.


They also note that Israel took the territory from Jordan, which has since relinquished its claim to the West Bank. Therefore, the settlers argue, there is no legal sovereign in the territory.


However, no country, not even Israel, considers West Bank settlements to be sovereign Israeli territory. As we noted, Israel annexed East Jerusalem and administers it as part of Israel. But Israel has never annexed any other part of the West Bank.


The settlers want to be formally incorporated into Israel, but that would ignite a major controversy. For now, Israel regards the West Bank as "disputed" territory that has been under the Israeli military since the 1967 war.


Why are Jews returning to their ancient homeland after being expelled in 1920 or 1929 or 1948 being called settlers?

Were those particular people expelled?

Did they not have the right to those homes and lands where they lived? Did they not buy those homes and much of that land and live on it until expelled do to an offensive war?

Did those particular people live there? And, if not, then does the same right not exist for the Palestinians that were expelled - the same right of return? Could you explain to me this logic?

Because Israel got that land back and Jews got to again live on their lands, or close to them wherever the Arabs were not living, that is considered illegal settlements but the Arab ones which came to be after 1948 are perfectly legal and not called settlements at all?

Could you explain to me this logic?

Which Arab ones where?

To answer your next post.

Jews bought land since the 1850s. Even so, they were attacked or simply expelled from 1920 on.

Do these Jews have a right to fight to get their land and homes back or not?

Yes if they can prove legal ownership. But that is a different matter than many of the settlers and "outposts".

Do the Palestinians have the same right?

I have no "one liners".

You did in that post.

You assumed that there were many more attacks on Arabs than the ones we posted. Please post them, and consider the circumstances and the punishment, if any, either side received.

I believe I did. It is a frequent occurence.
 
RE: What percentage of Israeli settlers are terrorists?
※→ Shusha, Coyote, et al,

This is a recurring question. A very dynamic question. Not the easiest of issues to address.

Depends on how they go about doing it doesn't it?
Like any other people they have every right to purchase property and settle there.
They have no other "right" to "take back" anything.
Why not?
(REFERENCE QUESTIONS)

How many wars does Israel have to fight before the issue is put to rest?

Sovereignty (absolute control) and the Right to Purchase Property and Settle there (a matter of Ownership) are two completely different issues.

(COMMENT)

Israel has fought three+ wars.

The Areas in dispute was the territory controlled by Jordan (the West Bank), Jerusalem and the area controlled by Egypt (the Gaza Strip).

There are Peace Treaties that cover these territories for peace. The Palestinians did not control anything and were not a party to the treaties.

Sovereignty wise, by what Right do the Palestinians claim anything?

Most Respectfully,
R

They have the same right as any people - for example the Jews - to have a homeland, to be citizens of a nation.
 
RE: What percentage of Israeli settlers are terrorists?
※→ Shusha, Coyote, et al,

This is a recurring question. A very dynamic question. Not the easiest of issues to address.

Depends on how they go about doing it doesn't it?
Like any other people they have every right to purchase property and settle there.
They have no other "right" to "take back" anything.
Why not?
(REFERENCE QUESTIONS)

How many wars does Israel have to fight before the issue is put to rest?

Sovereignty (absolute control) and the Right to Purchase Property and Settle there (a matter of Ownership) are two completely different issues.

(COMMENT)

Israel has fought three+ wars.

The Areas in dispute was the territory controlled by Jordan (the West Bank), Jerusalem and the area controlled by Egypt (the Gaza Strip).

There are Peace Treaties that cover these territories for peace. The Palestinians did not control anything and were not a party to the treaties.

Sovereignty wise, by what Right do the Palestinians claim anything?

Most Respectfully,
R
Israel has fought three+ wars.
Not with the Palestinians. The Palestinians never had an army. It has always been Israeli troops attacking Palestinian civilians.

They have militias.
 
Now, back to the topic of Jewish "settlers".

The problem with the Palestinian POV is that it conflates the issues of personal property ownership and sovereignty -- calling for limitations on property rights for people simply because of their ethnic background. And, of course, it applies this unequally to only one side of the conflict, all the while, calling Israel apartheid.

Personal property ownership has nothing to do with sovereignty. The existence of people of a certain ethnicity owning property does not in any way affect the sovereignty of a nation. Have you looked at the "swiss cheese full of holes" that makes up Israel with its Arab neighborhoods? And yet -- Israel is still a sovereign nation. There is absolutely no reason why Palestine can't also be a sovereign nation if Jews happen to live there.

This seriously should be the end of the argument about Jewish settlements. But, if you want to continue to argue against settlements why are we only arguing about Jewish ones? Why not discuss the Arab ones. Such as Nabi Saleh?

I don't know...for example, the settlers want Israel to incorporate them. They exert enormous political leverage.
 
The mandate was not a land transfer. The Mandate had no land to give. The Mandate was Jewish citizenship along with the other citizens.

Arrrggghhh. You get so much right and then lose it on the simplest, most basic principle because you don't happen to like it.

Let's take your first sentence and say I agree with you. The Mandate for Palestine was not a land transfer. Like all the other Mandates none of them were land transfers. Strictly speaking, "land transfer" is inappropriate terminology anyway. Land was never transferred from one sovereign to another (as were other territories transferred, or ceded, from Turkey to Greece, Italy, etc). The Mandate territories rather saw the dissolution of Turkish sovereignty and the creation of several entirely new sovereigns. The question, then, is how those new sovereigns came into being.

So. Let's walk through this. Turkey renounced the territory. This makes the territory terra nullius -- territory under the sovereignty of no State. The rights to create a State are invested in the two groups of peoples who make up the two ethnically distinct cultures in the territory, each with rights based on long-term residence or indigeneity in the territory. The persons responsible for protecting the rights of both peoples was the Allied Powers, and, eventually, the British for that particular Mandate. With me so far?

The Mandate for Palestine, which whether you like it or not, is a legal document, expressing the intent of the Allied Powers who were the ones responsible for putting into practice the Treaty of Lausanne, specifically the phrase in Article 16 which states: the future of these territories and islands being settled or to be settled by the parties concerned.

Let's say we even agree that the parties concerned are NOT the Allied Powers, who are only the protectors of rights but have no rights themselves. Let's say we agree that the "parties concerned" are the two peoples residing in the territory, with rights to sovereignty. Still with me?

Okay. So how does a peoples with the rights to sovereignty actually create a brand new, never-before-seen sovereign State? We've been through this before. There are four criteria: they have a permanent population; a defined territory, they form a government, and they develop the capacity to enter into relations with other States. They often also, though (as you correctly point out) not necessary, become recognized by other States.

All of these things were achieved by Syria, Iraq, Lebanon, Jordan and Israel. And there isn't much room to argue with any of it, other than perhaps small matters of detail.

Here's where you go terribly wrong:
The Mandate was not to create a Jewish state.

No where is there a prohibition for the Jewish people which prevents them from forming a State. Whether from the Mandate documents itself or from other international law -- there is no prohibition on any peoples forming a State for self-determination. On the contrary, as you constantly remind us, that right to independence, territorial integrity and sovereignty is an INHERENT right of all peoples. You absolutely can not continue to remind us of that basic concept while simultaneously prohibiting the Jewish people from that right.
So. Let's walk through this. Turkey renounced the territory. This makes the territory terra nullius -- territory under the sovereignty of no State.
This is one of the clunkers in your argument. The successor state of Palestine was already determined. Its international borders were already defined by post WWI treaties. The land inside those borders would be Palestine. The Turkish Citizens inside that territory would automatically become Palestinian citizens by international law. (The rule of state succession, 1907 Hague Regulations) This was reaffirmed by the 1925 Palestinian Citizenship Order where all Turkish citizens in that territory would be citizens of Palestine.

This was the starting point. The Palestinians were the people of the place with the standard list of inalienable rights. Much of what happened after that were violations of those inalienable rights.
 
What percentage of Israeli settlers are terrorists?
※→ P F Tinmore, Coyote, et al,

Some things just escape you.

They have militias.
(COMMENT)

Yes, this is correct! On the money. One were Palestinians that represented the Arab League and the other was a contingent of Palestinians that represented the Arab Higher Committee.


This is one of the clunkers in your argument. The successor state of Palestine was already determined. Its international borders were already defined by post WWI treaties.
(COMMENT)

Not exactly. The nationality was determined to be the territory to which the Mandate applied. It was effectively the successor, but not the true successor.

A05 Mavrommatis Jerusalem Concessions • this being Judgment #5
Judgment of 26 March 1925 (including the text of the declaration of M. Altamira)

The Government of the Greek Republic, by an application filed with the registry of the Court on May 13th, 1924, in accordance with Article 40 of the Statute and Article 35 of the Rules of Court, has submitted to the Permanent Court of International Justice a suit arising out of the alleged refusal on the part of the Government of Palestine and consequently also on the part of His Britannic Majesty's Government, in its capacity as Mandatory Power for Palestine, since the year 1921, to recognize to their full extent the
rights acquired by M. Mavrommatis, a Greek subject, under contracts and agreements concluded by him
with the Ottoman authorities, in regard to concessions for certain public works to constructed in Palestine.
This was the condition and language use in which to describe the Mandate of Palestine/Government of Palestine.

While it is true that the Treaty of Sevres did mention Palestine as "within such boundaries as may be determined by the Principal Allied Powers," the Treaty of Lausanne did not mention Palestine even once in the treaty.

You are confusion Article 30 on Nationality (the status of belonging to a particular nation, in this case the Government of Palestine - consequently also on the part of His Britannic Majesty's Government, in its capacity as Mandatory Power for Palestine) with that of Citizenship (recognized as a subject or national of a state or commonwealth, as defined by the Palestine Order in Council and the Citizenship Order of 1925). Nationality and Citizenship are separate concepts; they do not confer the state of a nation or state. It is the other way around, the government confers the nationality and citizenship.

The boundaries as set by the Allied Powers, had not been allocated as nations relative to the Mandate of Palestine. "On May 15, 1923, Britain formally recognized the Emirate of Transjordan as a state under the leadership of Emir Abdullah." However, the remainder of the Mandate had not yet been determined.

The land inside those borders would be Palestine. The Turkish Citizens inside that territory would automatically become Palestinian citizens by international law. (The rule of state succession, 1907 Hague Regulations) This was reaffirmed by the 1925 Palestinian Citizenship Order where all Turkish citizens in that territory would be citizens of Palestine.
(COMMENT)

This is nowhere near the reality that was the Mandate of Palestine. The was a Government of Palestine (AKA: the Mandatory by HM's Government) which was the name of the territory to which the Mandate applied (Palestine).

This was the starting point. The Palestinians were the people of the place with the standard list of inalienable rights. Much of what happened after that were violations of those inalienable rights.
[/quote]
(COMMENT)

There was no such thing as the standard list of "inalienable rights" (recognized by all governments and leaders everywhere) at any time during the period of the Mandate; but most particularly in the 1925 time frame.

Most Respectfully,
R
 
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RE: What percentage of Israeli settlers are terrorists?
※→ Coyote, Shusha, et al,

This is another one of those crystal ball issues.

Now, back to the topic of Jewish "settlers".

The problem with the Palestinian POV is that it conflates the issues of personal property ownership and sovereignty -- calling for limitations on property rights for people simply because of their ethnic background. And, of course, it applies this unequally to only one side of the conflict, all the while, calling Israel apartheid.

Personal property ownership has nothing to do with sovereignty. The existence of people of a certain ethnicity owning property does not in any way affect the sovereignty of a nation. Have you looked at the "swiss cheese full of holes" that makes up Israel with its Arab neighborhoods? And yet -- Israel is still a sovereign nation. There is absolutely no reason why Palestine can't also be a sovereign nation if Jews happen to live there.

This seriously should be the end of the argument about Jewish settlements. But, if you want to continue to argue against settlements why are we only arguing about Jewish ones? Why not discuss the Arab ones. Such as Nabi Saleh?

I don't know...for example, the settlers want Israel to incorporate them. They exert enormous political leverage.
(COMMENT)

Israel, and all the various views on the Arab Palestinian 'vs' Israel confrontation has been subject to a phenomenon whereby the anti-Israeli growth of adverse beliefs, ideas, facts and trends increases as more and more they are adopted by others. It makes no difference what the truth is or how the facts are played and manipulated, the adverse context grows.

Like some of those in the discussions here, they will not look at the notions and break them down into their constituent parts and dig down into the meat of what should be done to one side or the other.

v/r
R
 
15th post
I don't know...for example, the settlers want Israel to incorporate them. They exert enormous political leverage.

Oh. Finally. I've been two years on this board and FINALLY someone actually stops making the ridiculous "Jews have no rights argument" and gets to the real reason discussion about Jewish settlements.

Political leverage. Who is exerting political leverage on whom and to what purpose?
 
This is one of the clunkers in your argument. The successor state of Palestine was already determined. Its international borders were already defined by post WWI treaties. The land inside those borders would be Palestine.

Arrrggghh. Again. So close and yet so clueless. The Treaty of Lausanne is the legal document where Turkey renounces the territory. Walk it through. Document by document. What happens next, in the legal chain of events? That territory is terra nullius, renounced by the previous sovereign. Under the sovereignty of no one. What happened next? A new sovereignty must come into being. How does that happen?

You claim that the successor State was already determined. Let's say I agree with you. How would you demonstrate that to be true? What documents would you produce or link to which demonstrate that a successor State had already been determined? What documents confirm that successor State? When and where and how does that successor State meet the four criteria for sovereignty?

And finally, regardless of the above, support your claim that the Jewish people are legally prohibited from self-determination, independence and sovereignty in their historical homeland. Let's say that everything you claim is true. (Its SO not, but let's say). That Palestine came into being in the 1920s. That the Arab people have been prevented from exercising their rights to self-determination, sovereignty and independence. That there is only one State and it is "Palestine". Where is there a prohibition on dividing the territory into two parts -- one for the Arab peoples of Palestine and one for the Jewish peoples of Palestine? Be sure to include in your argument why Palestine is prohibited from division where Czechoslovakia was not, where Yugoslavia was not, where Sudan was not, where Spain/Catalonia is not, where Britain/Scotland is not, where North and South Korea are not, etc.
 
I am hated here because I am a Jew, but not a zionist.


Hey, great to meet you, outstanding Jewish person.

I am the former chief financial officer for the recently deposed prime minister of Sierra Leone, myself, and would like to form a partnership with you. You see, I need to deposit 28 million dollars in your bank account for safe keeping.
 
"In all territories detached from Turkey, either as a result of the Balkan Wars in 1913, or under the present Treaty, other than those referred to in Article 311, the State which definitely acquires the territory shall ipso facto succeed to the duties and charges of Turkey towards concessionaires and holders of contracts, referred to in the first paragraph of Article 311, and shall maintain the guarantees granted or assign equivalent ones.

"This succession shall take effect, in the case of each acquiring State, as from the coming into force of the Treaty under which the cession was effected. Such State shall take all necessary steps to ensure that the concessions may be worked and the carrying out of the contracts proceeded with without interruption.​

There was no question about Palestine being the successor state and that the territory was acquired by the state of Palestine.
 
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