Regarding Marbury v. Madison and the Court's power of judicial review, it's true that this was not a foreseen outcome of the Constitution's language but it is one that could have been foreseen. It follows logically and inevitably. Here's what the document says about the Supreme Court:
"The judicial Power of the United States, shall be vested in one supreme Court, and in such inferior Courts as the Congress may from time to time ordain and establish. . . . In all Cases affecting Ambassadors, other public Ministers and Consuls, and those in which a State shall be Party, the supreme Court shall have original Jurisdiction. In all the other Cases before mentioned, the supreme Court shall have appellate Jurisdiction, both as to Law and Fact, with such Exceptions, and under such Regulations as the Congress shall make." Article III, Sections 1 and 2.
"This Constitution, and the Laws of the United States which shall be made in Pursuance thereof; and all Treaties made, or which shall be made, under the Authority of the United States, shall be the supreme Law of the Land; and the Judges in every State shall be bound thereby, any Thing in the Constitution or Laws of any State to the Contrary notwithstanding." Article VI.
The key phrases here are "the judicial power of the United States," "original jurisdiction," and "appellate jurisdiction." What do these mean?
"The judicial power" means the authority to try all cases under federal law, as to both fact and law: to determine guilt or innocence, and to resolve civil disputes under federal law. "Original jurisdiction" means that a case can be brought directly before the Supreme Court without going through a lower court first; "Appellate jurisdiction" means that the case has to work its way through the lower courts before it can be appealed to the SCOTUS.
So, you have a case that has been decided in a lower court and that is appealed to the Supreme Court. This is the only way that the Court can rule on the constitutionality of a case. The Court cannot peruse laws recently passed by Congress and, on its own initiative, say, "Nope, that's unconstitutional, sorry!" But when a case comes before it, the power to strike down the law as unconstitutional is implied in the Court's possessing of "the judicial power."
Why? Because the Court can rule, in effect, "We decide the case this way, because the law in question conflicts with the Constitution. What's more, that's how we will rule in the future if any similar case comes before us. Any matter decided, any conviction reached or lawsuit resolved, on the basis of this law, will be reversed and struck down as soon as it's appealed to us, so you might as well not bother, bucko."
The Court cannot, of course, write law. But it most definitely can kill law.
The passage from Article VI is what gives the Court ultimate jurisdiction over state law as well as federal law, insofar as state law may conflict with the Constitution or with federal law.