IÂ’m not a constitutional scholar (and I donÂ’t play one on TV), but it seems based on the writings of the Court in the Lawrence case, they didnÂ’t consider gay marriage to be settled case law.
Kennedy wrote for the majority in Lawrence:
"The present case does not involve minors. It does not involve persons who might be injured or coerced or who are situated in relationships where consent might not easily be refused. It does not involve public conduct or prostitution. It does not involve whether the government must give formal recognition to any relationship that homosexual persons seek to enter."
“O'Connor's [concurring] opinion was broader than the majority's, for as Antonin Scalia noted in dissent it explicitly cast doubt on whether laws limiting marriage to heterosexual couples could pass rational-basis scrutiny. O'Connor explicitly noted in her opinion that a law limiting marriage to heterosexual couples would pass the rational scrutiny as long as it was designed to "preserv[e] the traditional institution of marriage" and not simply based on the state's dislike of homosexual persons.”
(yes, this is from Wikipedia; I said I wasnÂ’t a legal eagle, right?)
Whenever there is a discussion of the “right” of gay marriage it’s at least in part about the benefits heterosexual couples receive (1,138 Federal benefits is the number I have seen), but do gay couples have a right to expect the same benefits as traditional heterosexual couples?
The laws surrounding traditional marriage have evolved over hundreds (or probably thousands) of years (unlike the President’s “evolution” that took just over 3 years). This evolution has always been based on the understanding of marriage as between a man and a woman. Marriage in this sense is a supremely paternalistic institution, and assumes a union of unequals, or at least a union with specifically designed roles. Traditional marriage laws assume that the husband is the main provider, which allows the wife the flexibility to provide for the home and care of children, and therefore the financial wherewithal is assumed to be with the husband. Many (if not most) of the benefits afforded to traditional married couples are the result of this assumption, often to enhance the wife’s security. It would not be necessary, for instance, to allow for spousal health coverage if both spouses are expected to work outside the home. Since the wife relegates her option to pursue a career to being a caregiver, it would unfair if, when the husband dies, she was not able to access the same retirement benefits or the untaxed estate as if the husband were still alive, since she gave up her right to create her own estate for the good of the family unit. Even joint tax returns are only beneficial in situations where one spouse has significantly less income than the other and was really designed with the single support of two in mind; one of the recent problems of two-earner couples was the “marriage penalty” that resulted when the two earned a similar amount.
So, since there is no supposed “weaker sex” in a same-sex union, why would we provide the same protections that are provided to traditional couples? By extension, perhaps we should update the benefits afforded to traditional married couples to reflect the reality of the 21st century, where women often earn more than their husbands and require no such benefits.
I donÂ’t care whether the federal government recognizes gay marriage or not; I have no religious or moral agenda. As a conservative I support less government interference in the right of individuals to free association in whatever way they choose. However, this issue isnÂ’t about the rights of individuals, which as I see it have not been violated (marriage as it is currently defined is available to anyone); itÂ’s about the right of the government to promote what it sees as the common good; whether rightly or wrongly is a matter of debate.