Some did but it doesn't matter. The 1925 citizenship order said they were Palestinian. That was their legal status.Not true. Try again.Rocco, one issue that you continuously duck is the fact that the Palestinians have the inalienable right to territorial integrity.P F Tinmore, et al,
I'm not sure I agree.
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This is a bit disingenuous. The UK participation was conditional. The UK said that it couldn't do it by themselves ("could not alone implement any plan not accepted by both sides)." It was not a refusal - merely an intention not to participate. It was recognition that there would be an outbreak of hostilities as the Partition Plan was implemented:
"(iv) the United Kingdom Government “will endeavour to give the Commission the benefit of their experience and knowledge of the situation in Palestine, subject always to their decision that they are unable to take part in the implementation of the United Nations plan. That is, of course, in accordance with the statement made originally to the General Assembly by the Colonial Secretary to the effect that we could not alone implement any plan not accepted by both sides; and that as regards joining in any implementation, that would depend on two conditions. The Commission will remember that one was the inherent justice of the plan, an the other was the degree of force requisite for its implementation.” SOURCE: Paragraph 8 --- FIRST MONTHLY PROGRESS REPORT TO THE SECURITY COUNCIL
3. At the twenty-fifth meeting of the Ad Hoc Committee on the Palestinian Question, the United Kingdom Representative, in making clear the extent to which the role assigned to his Government by the Report of Sub-Committee 1 was compatible with the declared intention of his Government not to participate in the implementation of a plan of partition, stated: “If a scheme of partition were approved and a United Nations Commission set up, the Palestine Government would, when the time came, hand over its authority to that Commission”. SOURCE: UNITED NATIONS PALESTINE COMMISSION Note for Sir Alexander Cadogan
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This is debatable. Yes, in the sense of exercising the Right of Self-Determination, Israel did declare independence; as a people emerging into sovereign statehood and independence. But in doing so, the Jewish People took action in total coordination with the UN Palestine Commission (the successor Government) and pursuant to Part I --- Section B (Steps Preparatory to Independence), Paragraph 4 --- UN Resolution 181(II), wherein:
4. The Commission, after consultation with the democratic parties and other public organizations of The Arab and Jewish States, shall select and establish in each State as rapidly as possible a Provisional Council of Government. The activities of both the Arab and Jewish Provisional Councils of Government shall be carried out under the general direction of the Commission.
If by 1 April 1948 a Provisional Council of Government cannot be selected for either of the States, or, if selected, cannot carry out its functions, the Commission shall communicate that fact to the Security Council for such action with respect to that State as the Security Council may deem proper, and to the Secretary-General for communication to the Members of the United Nations.
AND by following the instruction as prescribed in Part I --- Sections C and D - as an integral part of the process. As noted in GA Resolution A/RES/273 (III) Admission of Israel to membership in the United Nations (11 May 1949): "Recalling its resolutions of 29 November 1947 3/ and 11 December 1948 4/ and taking note of the declarations and explanations made by the representative of the Government of Israel 5/ before the ad hoc Political Committee in respect of the implementation of the said resolutions," the process was completed by the people of Israel.
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Israel emerged after a War of Independence; after successfully defending its declaration and right to self-determination from external and offensive interference from Arab Aggression by multiple members of the Arab League.
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I'm not so sure that "colonize" is the right word. Is it exercising its right under the terms of the Oslo Accords; as agreed to by the sole legitimate representative of the Palestinian People?
Most Respectfully,
R
When did that become international law then, And remember until 1960 the only Palestinians were the Jews, the arab muslims were Syrians
Whats not true as before 1960 no arab muslims would allow themselves to be called Palestinians, it was an insult. The arab muslims in Palestine called themselves Syrians not Palestinians.
Try reading the order again and you will see they were BRITISH MANDATE FOR PALESTINE citizens. There was no nation of Palestine, no Palestinian government and the people were not organised enough to proclaim independence. So it fell to the MANDATE to be the government.
Keep trying and one day you might get it right