thereisnospoon
Gold Member
Your premise is based on confiscation and redistribution. So let's say we try it your way.First, taxes are not materialized into existence with a fairy and that capitol does not come from nothing. It must first be taken. So your analogy would be better stated as taking the million from the business owner and distributing it to the people.
How about if the business owner has TWO million he's sitting on, then, and the government proposes to tax ONE million and give it to the people?
The point of the analogy was not that it realistically depicts anything that can actually happen in every detail, but that it illustrates that giving more money to people who already have plenty and AREN'T investing it won't accomplish anything. Spreading some (not all) of that money around to those who DON'T have it, and therefore aren't spending it, will.
Of course, when you get down to details, it's important to consider how you go about doing that. But there's no point in considering those details until you acknowledge the plain, obvious overall principle: more money to the rich does NOT create jobs. More money to the middle class and poor DOES.
What it also fails to take into account is the fact that taking that cash from the business owner will have 3 possible effects: it can de-incentivize his creation of the business in the first place.
It's possible that there's a level of reduced profit margin that would do this. Do you have any idea what that level is? Will you acknowledge that there is also a lower level of reduced profit margin that will NOT do this?
No. A business does not charge its customers what it MUST. It charges its customers what it CAN. If the market would bear an increased price, an increased price would already be charged. Now, it is possible that, for a short time, increased consumer demand would result in higher prices, but only until the business and/or its competitors increased production to meet that higher demand.
What reinvestment into the company? Why would anyone invest in a company when there is insufficient consumer demand for its products to justify that investment?
On the contrary, I have taken money that was not being invested and put into the hands of people who will spend it. It was idle money, now its consumption money. Consumption drives investment, so it also increases the amount of the accumulated capital that will be invested (since nobody is talking about taking literally ALL of it).
This is the hole in supply-side thinking: the failure to understand that just because capital has been accumulated does NOT mean it will be invested in anything that creates jobs. That will happen only to the extent that consumer demand justifies doing it.
That's one reason why I keep saying "middle class AND poor" and not just "poor." But let me tell you what would have a bigger and better effect on the disparity of income, and hence on the economy, than anything we could do with the tax code. If the government were to strictly enforce labor law and the right to form unions as it did in the 1950s and 1960s, that would drive wages up, which would redistribute wealth. If at the same time it were to crack down on employment of illegal immigrants, that would reduce the labor glut, which would drive wages up, which would redistribute wealth. If at the same time it were to set trade and tax policy to discourage outsourcing rather than encourage it, that would also drive wages up, which would boost consumer demand which would help the economy.
Agreed about the middle class. More generally, the bigger and more secure the middle class is, the better the economy performs. The more jobs there are that provide a middle-class income, the better the economy performs. But we cannot do this and at the same time help/encourage the rich to become as rich as possible, because these are mutually exclusive goals.
As for the rich, the problem isn't that they CAN'T "surge the economy forward." It's that, under present demand conditions, they WON'T. Reducing their ability to do so slightly, in order to increase their incentive to do so by increasing demand for consumer products, is a net gain.
But I'm NOT ignoring that. I'm taking it for granted, and I have every reason to do so. Capital is not going to disappear. In a capitalist economy, it always exceeds consumer demand. The economy has suffered a downturn over and over for lack of consumer demand, but it has NEVER suffered a downturn for lack of financial capital. Accumulation of capital is a problem only for an economy trying to bootstrap itself into industrialized production and out of an agrarian, pre-industrial state. But we finished that job a long time ago. We have a mature economy, and in a mature capitalist economy the problem is always consumer demand, not capital formation.
No, a flat tax would hurt the middle class. The only way that a flat tax has ever been presented as beneficial to the middle class is by drastically understating the level it would have to be set at to cover current and projected government expenses.
Or do you think that the meme on the left that MOST rich people pay a lower percentage of their income in taxes than the middle class is actually true? I'll grant you (and my somewhat-confused left-wing peers) that there are SOME rich people who do this, but most pay a higher percentage of their income than the average. This means that most rich people would receive a tax cut from any realistic flat tax. The poor might come out with a wash, depending on how much income is set aside as non-taxable. It's the middle class that would get screwed.
No, they would destroy any investment at all as there would be zero reward for risking your capitol after the government confiscated all the profits.
I refer you to the 1950s and early 1960s, when the top marginal tax rate was at 91% on incomes above $1.6 million (in today's dollars -- nominal dollar amount was lower but that was in 1950s money) and the result you predict did not occur. How do you explain that?
I can explain it, of course. Most investment simply does not come from people in that stratospheric level of income. Most investment comes from smaller investors or from entrepreneurs starting new businesses or expanding existing ones, whose incomes are nowhere near the level where they would run into that kind of tax bite. And since the policies of that time, taken altogether, increased consumer demand over what we have now, the net effect was MORE investment in job-creating activities, not less.
Also simply raising wages accomplishes nothing. If the lowest McDonalds worker earned a million dollars an hour there would be no difference in their economic status. The value of the cash he is paid will naturally fall to equal the value his labor adds in real goods. It would be reflected by the fact a burger would cost you 500 thousand dollars to purchase. This idea that raising labor costs will not affect the price of the goods you are raising the labor costs to buy is absolutely nuts. On what planet are the labor costs not DIRECTLY ties to the cost of the product?
This one. Or at least, on this one labor costs do not DETERMINE the price of the product. That's how my father, who worked as a machinist in the '50s and '60s, could support a non-working wife and three children, send all of us to college, own a home and two cars, all on one full-time blue-collar income. There were a lot of jobs like that in those days. Did the higher wages of those times evaporate in higher prices? No, they did not.
Once again, a business charges its customers what it CAN -- what they can and will pay -- not what it MUST. If it can raise prices, it does. If it can't, because its customers can't or won't pay that much, it doesn't. Generally speaking, except in a few industries that operate very near the bone, rising labor costs don't result in higher prices, or at any rate not in prices rising anywhere near whey would absorb all the wage gains, and on the other side, dramatically FALLING labor costs -- such as when a manufacturer moves its operation to China -- don't result in DROPPING prices that fully reflect the drop in production costs. Prices of goods produced in third-world countries have indeed fallen, but by only a fraction of the companies' savings.
The business owner LOSES one million. The government( at least this admin) is charged with the duty to redistribute the one million. What's next? Just write checks to people? Seriously? What kind of incentive does that leave for business to produce?
Why would any person or group want to invest in a new venture knowing full well that government is now essentially the "profit police".
Guess what? Not happening. EVER. At least not in our lifetime.
All of you who wish to live in a socialist utopia will have to go elsewhere.
Oh....I almost fell out my chair when I read this.....
"If the government were to strictly enforce labor law and the right to form unions as it did in the 1950s and 1960s"....
First, the federal government has no authority to mandate the right to form unions. That issue is for the states to decide. There are 28 forced union or closed shop states in which at the most, 20% of workers are unionized and there are 22 right to work states. All that entails is a simply that a prospective employee or existing worker cannot be compelled to join a labor organization as a pre requisite for employment nor can that worker be compelled to join a union or pay dues to a union. In those states unionization is on the order of less than 5%.
The federal government never had the authority to mandate unionism.
Unions are being incrementally shut out of the labor market for many reasons. One is unions artificially drive up labor costs which drives up the price of union made goods to the point where those products are priced at non competitive levels.