The federal government has the authority to tax incomes. It doesn't have the authority to tax your property. Such a tax would be unconstitutional.
Not that I was seriously advocating doing exactly what I described anymore than I was seriously talking about magical fairies, but:
"The Congress shall have Power To lay and collect Taxes, Duties, Imposts and Excises, to pay the Debts and provide for the common Defence and general Welfare of the United States; but all Duties, Imposts and Excises shall be uniform throughout the United States;"
and there was another restriction that forbade direct taxes except in proportion to the census which was repealed by the 16th Amendment. There is nothing that says the federal government can't tax property. In fact, the federal government DOES tax property -- ever heard of the estate tax or the gift tax?
All income is either spent on final goods or on capital. If it's saved, then it's still spent on capital. Your bank can pay you interest only because it loans your money out to business or to consumers. Even if the rich kept all their funds in the form of cash and stuffed it in a mattress, that would mean they weren't consuming. The goods not consumed would be available in the form of capital. Your mistake is that you keep confusing actual physical capital with worthless scraps of paper.
All true (if irrelevant) up until the last sentence, which is wrong on two counts: 1) I DON'T make that confusion; and 2) those scraps of paper are NOT worthless as long as the United States continues to exist as a nation.
What is "more money to the rich" supposed to mean?
Exactly what it says. The means is unimportant. Maybe it's a tax cut. Maybe it's restraint of wage increases resulting in higher profits. Maybe it's a subsidy. Doesn't matter. Increasing the capital available for investment does NOT create jobs. Increasing consumer demand does.
Any reduction in profit will cause a business to expand less than it would have otherwise.
Profit MARGIN is not the same as PROFIT. If a business has a 25% profit margin on $100,000 in gross revenue, its profits are less than if it has a 10% profit margin on $1,000,000 in gross revenue, and that's pretty much the condition I'm talking about here.
If a business does not cover its costs, it goes out of business. Competition drives business profits to zero. Therefore, the price of a product is invariably determined by the marginal cost.
That does not follow and it's also observably untrue.
"Idle money" isn't the issue. What is being done with worthless scraps of paper isn't an economic issue. The only thing that matters is idle capital - that is, real plant and equipment that isn't being used.
We use money (which, as noted above, is not "worthless" so long as the government issuing it continues to exist) as a way of depicting the value of what is bought and sold, including capital property. You are making a meaningless distinction.