JoeTheEconomist
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- Sep 4, 2015
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Seriously, you don't understand the difference between me loaning money to someone else, and me loaning money to myself. You actually mean that? Seriously?
And as a finance guy, you actually, truly didn't grasp my point that whether or not there is a trust changes zero cash flows ex-ante to anyone, ANYONE, EX-ANTE
you want to look someone in the eye who knows that that means and say you don't get it? I withdraw my statement that I believe you. You are full of shit. And I mean that in the most disrespectful sort of way. In a way that most who say that to you don't. I know what I am talking about. that you don't grasp that your arguement changes zero cashflows is pathetic. If you do what you say, you should be shit canned on the spot.
Cash flows is wall street, Holmes. You don't know that? You aren't Wall Street, you are a janitor, you are a canard:
Toro: There doesn't have to be any money for something to be an asset, WTF are you talking about? Yeah, there does
You're not loaning money to yourself. You keep repeating that mistake.
Tell me the difference between the two are
1. You give the government taxes and you are credited with future SS payments
2. You give the government money for a bond which you are credited for future interest and principle payments.
Tell me what the difference is?
You know nothing about finance if you actually can stand behind that a "trust fund" which effects cash flows to no one positively or negatively ex-ante is a financial asset
Assets are valued on risk adjusted expected cashflows, Holmes. Bonds, stocks, all of them. An "asset" which has zero effect on cashflows in or out of the imperial federal government therefore has a value of zero
Read a book on asset valuation and get back to me
I have. Which is why your future social security payments are an asset.
A financial asset is the value of future cash flows discounted back to the present. What is the value of your future social security payments? That's your asset. Do you understand that, "Holmes?" That's the asset that is held in trust for you at the Treasury. Then, all estimated future payments made to SS participants are pooled together in the trust, and those are the assets of the trust. These are liabilities of the government.
Now why don't you answer the question? Did you not understand it? Did you not read your book on valuation? I'll repeat it for you.
Tell me the difference between the two
1. You give the government taxes and you are credited with future SS payments
2. You give the government money for a bond which you are credited for future interest and principle payments.
What is the difference?
Legally, one is an obligation of the government and the other isn't. In fact, your future SS payments will be automatically reduced if future voters decide that they do not want to pay payroll taxes that are sufficient to cover them.
Yeah, that's true. I'm trying to show how cash flows move and the liabilities of the government. SS effectively mimics a defined contribution pension plan or an annuity backed by a pool of government securities. SS is constructed as if it were a pool of government bonds without actually buying and selling any securities.
It should be noted that the US government could also stop paying Treasury securities, i.e. default, like they could stop paying SS, or alter the terms of both. Of course, as I mentioned earlier in this thread, the responses to both would be dramatically different.
Actually I have no idea that the government has the ability to default since the bonds are denominated in our own currency. With all of the talk about the debt limit creating a 'default', I am not sure that Congress is Constitutionally allowed to default. My guess is that it would be a matter for the Supreme Court who would get a case from a holder of US debt. My guess is that the debt ceiling would be held unconstitutional, but that is a guess.