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" Whereupon, O king Agrippa, I was not disobedient unto the heavenly vision: But shewed first unto them of Damascus and at Jerusalem, and throughout all the coasts of Judea, and then to the Gentiles, that they should repent and turn to God and do works meet for repentance. For these causes the Jews caught me in the temple, and went about to kill me."
Acts 26:19-21
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Contradicted by:
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" But when it pleased God, who separated me from my mother's womb, and called me by his grace, To reveal his Son in me, that I might preach him among the heathen; immediately I conferred not with flesh and blood: Neither went I up to Jerusalem to them which were apostles before me; but I went into Arabia, and returned again unto Damascus. Then after three years I went up to Jerusalem to see Peter, and abode with him fifteen days. But other of the apostles saw I none, save James the Lord's brother. Now the things which I write unto you, behold, before God, I lie not. Afterwards I came into the regions of Syria and Cilicia; And was unknown by face unto the churches of Judea which were in Christ: But they had heard only, That he which persecuted usin times past now preacheth the faith which once he destroyed. "
Galatians 1:15-23
With regard to the first two passages in " The First Christian," says:
I have figured out what you are doing. You are getting all your information from other sources, which quote the New Testament in order to "discredit it." If you read on in Galatians, which I don't believe you have done, you would read, of course, the next chapter, chapter 2:
"Then after fourteen years I went up again to Jerusalem..."
When Paul says, "immediately I conferred not with flesh and blood: Neither went I up to Jerusalem to them which were apostles before me; but I went into Arabia, and returned again unto Damascus" the phrase "immediately I conferred not" means he didn't go right away, nor did he go to Jerusalem at that time. He then says he went up to Jerusalem after 3 years. This corresponds to Acts 15. He then goes to Macedonia, Thessalonica, Athens, Corinth, Ephesus, and then again to Jerusalem. All you are doing here is mixing up the chronology, or rather not you yourself but whomever you are quoting this all from. There's no way you are a New Testament scholar, with all these quotes you have, but you are just looking up so-called "contradictions" (in "The First Christian" whatever that is) and writing whatever you find.
As for our discussion, you are either completely wrong or using terminology that is wrong. The "northern tribes" refers, usually, to the 10 tribes of the Northern Kingdom of Israel, which were taken into captivity by Assyria in the 8th century bc. These were not taken to Babylon. The punishment on Israel is proclaimed by the prophet Hosea.
As for Jeremiah 34, you look ahead to verses 7 & 8, but you stop verse 8 in mid-sentence:
Yes but you failed to read on the next verses in Jeremiah 34:
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Jeremmiah 34:7-8
34:7 when the king of Babylon's army fought against Jerusalem, and against all the cities of Judah that were left, against Lachish and against Azekah; for these alone remained of the cities of Judah as fortified cities.
34:8 The word that came unto Jeremiah from the Lord, after that the king Zedekiah had made a covenant with all the people that were at Jerusalem, to proclaim liberty unto them;
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So the southern tribe of Judah and King Zedekiah made a covenant with all the people that remained in Jerusalem a proclamation of freedom and liberty unto the remnant Jewish people remaining in Jerusalem and the southern part of Israel after the northern tribes had been taken off into Babylonia captivity.
The meaning here is not a parable but clear and unambiguous. You have to learn to read the Bible more fully.
Man, you take things so out of context. This is NOT a covenant "unto the remnant Jewish people remaining in Jerusalem and the southern part of Israel..." as if this is a remnant who were never taken to Babylon. They will be taken to Babylon. This is a covenant made with the people of Jerusalem to free Jewish slaves, which they do, but then they go and take them back. Right after this, in verses 12-22, Jeremiah prophesies to them "Therefore thus says the Lord: 'You have not obeyed Me in proclaiming liberty, every one to his brother and every one to his neighbor. Behold I proclaim liberty to you,' says the Lord- 'to the sword, to pestilence, and to famine! And I will deliver you to trouble among all the kingdoms of the earth (Jeremiah 34:17)." Then in verse 21: "And I will give Zedekiah king of Judah and his princes into the hands of their enemies, into the hand of those who seek their life, and into the hand of the king of Babylon's army which has gone back from you." It is you who are not reading further into the text. You only quote what suits you, and then, as usual, way wrong. Do you really think you please or serve the G-d you claim to worship when you don't even think things through?
As to this discussion of rape and abortion: Your whole premise is way off the page. You decided, only to dispute anything relating to Christianity, that Jesus should have specifically addressed rape and abortion, and since you can't find a verse where He does, you decide that He must have approved of them. But even you can't be that perverse. You are really saying, if I am reading correctly, that Jesus approved of sin because without sin He would have had nothing to die for. This is ludicrous. That's like saying that when you repent of your sins on Yom Kippur and speak the kol nidre, asking to be forgiven any vows you might make in the coming year, that you are giving yourself license to break your vows. This is a charge made by anti-Semites, as a total misreading of what the actual meaning of the kol nidre is, as I'm sure you know, but you misread Christ as badly as the anti-Semites misread this. Jesus came to annul the animal sacrifices of the Temple. Sin, under the Mosaic covenant, or Old Testament, required animal sacrifice for expiation. Under the New Testament, the blood of Christ permanently replaces the need for any other sacrifice. But here's your error- although both covenants require blood sacrifice, under NEITHER covenant are you expected or allowed to go out and sin again just because your sin was forgiven. This is where I see you stumbling over and over again, thinking that Jesus' crucifixion for our salvation is a license to sin- if this is true, then so was animal sacrifice in the Temple. So if you sin, can you just bring another offering, be forgiven and deliberately go sin again? No. Under both covenants, sacrifice must be accompanied by REPENTANCE. Will there be backsliding into sin? Of course. That's human nature. But under the New Covenant I have Christ as my intercessor. What do you have under Jewish law, the rabbinical tradition? There is no more Temple sacrifice. So what can you do? Try to be good, and hope your sins are forgiven on Yom Kippur. But who is your intercessor with G-d? Yourself? The rabbi of your synagogue? This is very shaky- G-d didn't just let anyone come close to Him under the old covenant, which you are still under if you're not under the new. G-d killed unauthorized persons who came close to His ark. Only the high priest could go into the Holy of Holies and be in the presence of the Shekinah, and then only once a year. You don't even have a high priest now. So who is pleading your case to G-d? You? Do you have the authority? No, only Jesus has the authority.