Any use otherwise only restricts the rights and natural liberties of some or most in order to give unnatural rights and privilages to others. Natural rights cannot be voted away by a majority. Furthermore, I fail to see where it is constitutional to do so.
Rights aren't "natural", they're a result of our banding together to form governments for mutual protection. In the "natural" world you're ONLY right, if I'm stronger than you, is to wait patiently while I feed off YOUR kill leaving you the scraps I can't finish. You seem to be reading something into the Constitution that just doesn't exist. It's similar to those who claim some sort of "original intent" in the document, when anyone who knows its origins realizes that there were in facy many "intents", giving us a rather short and vague document that requires a SC to settle constitutional issues.
Intresting! Very! So our rights are granted by governments? Thus our rights aren't unaleinable? If you had read ALL of my OP carefully, though it looks like youve taken a snippit from it, I laid out the very point of where our rights end thus clearing up exactly what you are speaking about above. The U.S. Constitution was never intended to restrict our UNALEINABLE rights in the effort to protect the guy who is not as prosperous as others. Life, liberty, and the Pursuit of happiness; thats it. It was never intended to advocate for life, less liberty for some and extra rights and privilages for others, and the guarentee of happiness. Strength has nothing to do with it. And if our rights arent unaleinable and are granted by the mercy of government then the government can also take them away. I see you voted "somewhat". There is no difference between "somewhat" and "yes". Because if they can "somewhat" take your rights then they have the power to compleatly take your rights. Because there will never be a definition of where that "somewhat" will end. And if government is the granter of rights and there is no such thing as a natural right, then government has the power to determin if you have any rights at all and which specific rights can be sacraficed for nonexistant rights. There is a reason that entitlements are not called rights though natural rights must be taken in order to create entitlements and welfare programs. Our individual unaleinable natural rights were not dfined but reckonised as self evident truths so that no one could take them away; not even the vote of the majority, which is why we have the Bill or Rights and we are a Constitutional Republic and not a Democracy. Our rights are so self evident, they are so mush of our natural property, that even the founding fathers knew that government did not have the authority to vote them away because they werent property of government to begin with.
Scraps? What do you mean by "scraps"? This sounds to me like the Karl Marxian idea as private property as theft. I suppose that instead of "living off of the scraps" of employers you would tax such employers in order for them to live off of the scraps of government with the stipulation that they fail to earn money. The Founders never intended for such a lack of incentive to chase prosparity. This is not only evendent in the debates that took place as recorded in James Madisons Notes on the Constitutional Convention but the voting rights of the states as well. You see, they knew that if thoes who did not have property were allowed to vote
(which is a privilage, not a right, as thoes who dont own property do not pay taxes "representation without taxation") it would create a false constiuency of supporters that will vote the unalenianble right to private property away from thoes that have it to thoes that dont. They viewed it as a way of corrupting the voting base and thus should not happen as it will create a bunch of polititions who would gain their support by giving out more welfare than the next.
However, placing all of that aside, if the Founding Fraimers wanted congress to have such a broad power under Article 1 Section 8 then why did they specifically enumerate the powers of congress? Nevermind, I know you will not answer that question as no one in the history of this debate who holds such a position has or could.
Please read these quotes. And dont tell me that their only one quote taken out of context because I will swamp you with many many more!
Thomas Jefferson: "To take from one, because it is thought that his own industry and that of his father's has acquired too much, in order to spare to others, who, or whose fathers have not exercised equal industry and skill, is to violate arbitrarily the first principle of association -- the guarantee to every one of a free exercise of his industry, and the fruits acquired by it."
John Adams: “The moment the idea is admitted into society that property is not as sacred as the laws of God, and that there is not a force of law and public justice to protect it, anarchy and tyranny commence. If ‘Thou shalt not covet’ and ‘Thou shalt not steal’ were not commandments of Heaven, they must be made inviolable precepts in every society before it can be civilized or made free.
James Madison: “That is not a just government, nor is property secure under it, where the property which a man has in his personal safety and personal liberty, is violated by arbitrary seizures of one class of citizens for the service of the rest.”
Benjamin Franklin: I am for doing good to the poor, but...I think the best way of doing good to the poor, is not making them easy in poverty, but leading or driving them out of it. I observed...that the more public provisions were made for the poor, the less they provided for themselves, and of course became poorer. And, on the contrary, the less was done for them, the more they did for themselves, and became richer