Challenger
Gold Member
Where does it say in Oslo that settlements are legal.montelatici, et al,
I think you need to re-read the posting.
(COMMENT)Do you just enjoy reading the nonsense you write, Rocco. Why are always so full of shit?
Let me explain this to you carefully once and for all so that you quit posting this nonsense.
First, your implication that Article 49(6) is intended to protect the citizens of the occupying power, in this case Israeli citizens, is ridiculous and has been rejected by every International Law expert. The sole purpose of the 4th Geneva Convention is to protect the civilians living under occupation, not the citizens of the occupying power, who are not afforded any protection by the Convention.
Second, the term “transfer” does not imply forced, as evidenced by another article in the Convention, Article 49(1), which forbids the deportation of civilians from the occupied territories, and uses the phrase “forcible transfer,” not simply the term “transfer,” as Article 49(6) does.
Further, the settler’s voluntary cooperation in the transfer does not diminish from its illegal character, pursuant to the sixth paragraph of Article 49, as long as the Occupying Power stands behind the project.
Article 49(6) is always applicable as long as the occupying power is facilitating the transfer of its own citizens, whether forced or not. What Article 49 (6) aimed to prevent was not situations such as those in which Nazi Germany was deporting its Jewish citizens to the death camps, but instead Nazi Germany’s intention to transfer its ethnic German citizens into the Eastern European territories it conquered as part of its Lebensraum policy to alter the demographics of those territories.
So once and for all. Shut up. Your BS may fool some of your little, mentally challenged that have little or no higher education, Zionutter friends, but not someone that has some familiarity with international law.
I posted Article 49 so that anyone reading the post can see the referenced material.
I made two implications:
Neither of these implications have anything to do with your diatribe. I did not raise the "force" issue at all, nor did I imply that Article 49 is for the benefit of the Occupying Power.
- FIRST, that Article 49 aspects need to be litigate in the light of the fact that the Palestinians agreed to Area "C".
- SECOND: The Palestinians have not followed the agreed upon dispute resolution process.
Most Respectfully,
R
Agreements cannot trump international law.
Already posted that for you
YES THEY CAN as that is how International law comes about, by agreements made between two consenting parties. If this was not the case the whole world would be in perpetual war.
Utter rubbish, again. International laws come about through universally accepted international "norms" of behaviour. While treaties can and do play a part in their formation, bi-lateral or even multi-lateral agreements do not (unless the rest of the world subsequently agrees). Country A signs an agreement with Country B, however Countries C,D,E,F,G and H disagree with that agreement, therefore that agreement does not become International law.