gonegolfin
Member
My father-in-law is having lunch with some Dallas Fed officials in October. He is taking my questions with him (highlighted in red).
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My questions ... sent to my father-in-law ...
Being that I am sure they would not be very receptive to my complaints against the Federal Reserve leadership, I won't have you ask any questions steeped in these complaints. However, I do have an interesting one concerning how they view monetary policy will be conducted from this point forward ...
First, some background ...
It would be a lot easier to predict the Fed's intentions (w/respect to monetary policy) if they simply funded the bailout plan (whichever one passes) via quantitative easing. That is, It would be much more clear if the Fed simply came out and said that they are going to replenish their balance sheet and buy treasuries. This would result in newly created money to fund the bailout, instead of using treasury debt sales. Then we would know that we are headed down the path of inflation.
But using treasury debt to fund the bailout, as is being proposed, does not increase the monetary base. Now, if investors (especially foreigners holding big US Dollar stashes) revolt, we are going to have serious price inflation on our hands, despite the money supply not growing (no inflation, just price inflation). Even if that does not happen, if investors refuse to swallow all of the debt being offered, the Fed will then be forced into quantitative easing (monetization of debt/create money) to fund the balance. This obviously is inflationary and the monetary base will increase. But if the Fed is successful in funding the bailout solely through selling treasury debt, we still have a serious chance of deflation occurring (as happened in the Great Depression era).
Do you follow me thus far?
Now for the questions ...
Does the Fed truly believe that this is just a liquidity crisis and not jointly a solvency crisis? If it is just a liquidity crisis, then that can be cured by the alphabet soup of loan programs they have used over the past nine months (including the TAF and TSLF) up to the limit of their balance sheet (because they sterilized the loans). If they need more than their balance sheet allows, of course they can petition the people for taxpayer loans (as they are). But what is being presented is not simply a set of loans. The proposal is for the government to purchase real assets at above market prices (obviously they must be else they could be sold now at market prices). Nobody with any sense believes that the assets behind these purchases will recapture their original investment price paid by the government (or they are lying). Thus, I believe you can reasonably assert that the bailout plan is not a loan. So, if you believe that premise, this is not just a liquidity crisis. It is a solvency crisis as well and it will cost the taxpayer.
Given the above ... I would be interested in knowing why they decided to fund the bailout via the sale of treasury debt vs. quantitative easing/creating new money. This (creating new money) would give them the opportunity to rebuild their balance sheet somewhat. And it would lessen the risk of a deflation. The Fed has maintained for some time that this is all a liquidity crisis, which is why they sterilized their loan facilities all of this time. If they still believe this, this can explain the sale of treasury debt (there still may be another reason). But I simply cannot imagine that they really believe this, when everything else points to a solvency crisis. These banks are not failing because of accounting rules or inadequate access to credit. Washington Mutual just got wiped out/failed tonight (with assets snatched by JP Morgan) because they were insolvent ... as were the other failures with the likely exception of AIG. Might they be thinking that it makes sense to appropriate the first set of funds ($700 billion) from Congress and obtain it via sales of treasury debt? Because if they need a second round of funds, they can always print it themselves (without approval from Congress)? I am postulating that it would be harder to get Congressional approval for funds (in a second round of funding) after an initial round of $700 billion of money creation by the Fed. Thus, you get money from the Treasury first and print money if you need to second. But I think this is very dangerous as it risks a deflation. My only other explanation here may be that one or more Asian countries strongly offered a preference.
These are very important questions because it helps provide a clue as to where monetary policy is heading and how it will affect our investments. Thanks for carrying these questions. If I was not clear and we need to talk, let me know.
Thanks,
Brian
--
My questions ... sent to my father-in-law ...
Being that I am sure they would not be very receptive to my complaints against the Federal Reserve leadership, I won't have you ask any questions steeped in these complaints. However, I do have an interesting one concerning how they view monetary policy will be conducted from this point forward ...
First, some background ...
It would be a lot easier to predict the Fed's intentions (w/respect to monetary policy) if they simply funded the bailout plan (whichever one passes) via quantitative easing. That is, It would be much more clear if the Fed simply came out and said that they are going to replenish their balance sheet and buy treasuries. This would result in newly created money to fund the bailout, instead of using treasury debt sales. Then we would know that we are headed down the path of inflation.
But using treasury debt to fund the bailout, as is being proposed, does not increase the monetary base. Now, if investors (especially foreigners holding big US Dollar stashes) revolt, we are going to have serious price inflation on our hands, despite the money supply not growing (no inflation, just price inflation). Even if that does not happen, if investors refuse to swallow all of the debt being offered, the Fed will then be forced into quantitative easing (monetization of debt/create money) to fund the balance. This obviously is inflationary and the monetary base will increase. But if the Fed is successful in funding the bailout solely through selling treasury debt, we still have a serious chance of deflation occurring (as happened in the Great Depression era).
Do you follow me thus far?
Now for the questions ...
Does the Fed truly believe that this is just a liquidity crisis and not jointly a solvency crisis? If it is just a liquidity crisis, then that can be cured by the alphabet soup of loan programs they have used over the past nine months (including the TAF and TSLF) up to the limit of their balance sheet (because they sterilized the loans). If they need more than their balance sheet allows, of course they can petition the people for taxpayer loans (as they are). But what is being presented is not simply a set of loans. The proposal is for the government to purchase real assets at above market prices (obviously they must be else they could be sold now at market prices). Nobody with any sense believes that the assets behind these purchases will recapture their original investment price paid by the government (or they are lying). Thus, I believe you can reasonably assert that the bailout plan is not a loan. So, if you believe that premise, this is not just a liquidity crisis. It is a solvency crisis as well and it will cost the taxpayer.
Given the above ... I would be interested in knowing why they decided to fund the bailout via the sale of treasury debt vs. quantitative easing/creating new money. This (creating new money) would give them the opportunity to rebuild their balance sheet somewhat. And it would lessen the risk of a deflation. The Fed has maintained for some time that this is all a liquidity crisis, which is why they sterilized their loan facilities all of this time. If they still believe this, this can explain the sale of treasury debt (there still may be another reason). But I simply cannot imagine that they really believe this, when everything else points to a solvency crisis. These banks are not failing because of accounting rules or inadequate access to credit. Washington Mutual just got wiped out/failed tonight (with assets snatched by JP Morgan) because they were insolvent ... as were the other failures with the likely exception of AIG. Might they be thinking that it makes sense to appropriate the first set of funds ($700 billion) from Congress and obtain it via sales of treasury debt? Because if they need a second round of funds, they can always print it themselves (without approval from Congress)? I am postulating that it would be harder to get Congressional approval for funds (in a second round of funding) after an initial round of $700 billion of money creation by the Fed. Thus, you get money from the Treasury first and print money if you need to second. But I think this is very dangerous as it risks a deflation. My only other explanation here may be that one or more Asian countries strongly offered a preference.
These are very important questions because it helps provide a clue as to where monetary policy is heading and how it will affect our investments. Thanks for carrying these questions. If I was not clear and we need to talk, let me know.
Thanks,
Brian
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