We have already had decades of affirmative action, and the last black person who was enslaved died long ago.
I have no problem with reparations for those who experiences something. It makes no sense to offer reparations to those who didn't.
That makes sense --- on the surface. That is, assuming that the issue is whether the technical definition of "slavery" exists.
But what if the issue is keeping a specific group of people down, with or without that technical definition? What if the formal institution of slavery was but
one way to do that -- as are also, for example, prison work for hire, or outright discrimination in employment opportunities? Do they not accomplish the same or similar without the technical definition?
AA made an attempt to address that, but it's an artificial device and as such is necessarily flawed. It's an attempt to change culture through the law, which really isn't possible by itself (which is also why gun control measures are meaningless).
Just raising the question, because the question isn't necessarily "does slavery exist"
literally. We've already codified that it cannot ---- but that's simply noting one dimension. Were it possible to, with such a law, invoke a time machine that somehow wiped out all of the residual cultural effects of that institution, along with the existence of it, then there might be no issue.
But ---- we can't do that.