P F Tinmore, Phoenall,
et al,
You have to understand that our friend "P F Tinmore" is arguing from the position that ALL of the territory formerly under the Mandate for Palestine in 1948, is Palestine (including Israel). Palestine, in his view, is the greater claim that encompasses all. Israel is an intrusion on to Palestinian Sovereignty (All of the former Mandate Territory).
It is the position of HAMAS as replicated in the Covenant, and it is the position of the Palestinian Authority as replicated in the Charter.
You need to reread my post.
(COMMENT)
P F Tinmore's position is, that from the frontier of Egypt, to the frontier of Lebanon is all Palestine; with no borders in between. And in some respects, this is true. There are no documented borders. This is not to say that in reality, the international community doesn't recognized that Israel has "jurisdiction" and "effective control."
However, my argument is based on the fact that the "Tinmore Claim" is merely a claim unrealized. At no time has the Arab Palestinian demonstrated clear and unambiguous sovereignty, control, or leadership over any of the territory since before the fall of the Ottoman Empire. That the claim itself if fallacious and un-demonstrable in any real and concrete sense. Even today, the chaotic government called the "State of Palestine" is a loosely connected (so called) "Unity Government" consisting of HAMAS, the Palestinian Islamic Jihad, and Fatah; as demonstrated in Cairo this past week in the negotiation over a ceasefire. This is not a real demonstration of "jurisdiction" and "effective control."
Let me say this again, not since before the Ottoman Empire has the Arab Palestinian demonstrated any "jurisdiction" and "effective control" of any territory from the Jordan River to the Mediterranean Sea, and from the frontier of Lebanon to the frontier of Egypt; not for a thousand years and not today.
It is illusionary.
Most Respectfully,
R