Bob Blaylock
Diamond Member
- Banned
- #1
This occurred more than two years ago, and once it was over, I didn't think much more of it. But for some reason, it just now popped into my head, and makes me wonder…
In September of 2019, I broke my leg.
A few months later, in November, I suddenly developed some severe muscle spasms in the other leg. Somehow, the two things are connected, but the mechanism is unclear to me. But that's not what this post is about.
The severe muscle spasms were extremely painful and debilitating, more so, in fact, than my broken and patched-together other leg was by this point. As a result, my wife took me to the nearest emergency room to seek treatment.
Now, on being admitted to the emergency room, right away, they made a point of separating me from my wife, and with my wife not present, I was questioned, with a very obvious purpose of determining whether or not my wife might have been physically, violently abusing me. She hadn't of course, and it didn't take very long for them to be satisfied that she hadn't.
Other than just a very general case of my wife having brought me in for one thing, while I was in a condition of having recently suffered a serious other injury, neither my wife nor I can think of any reason why they should have suspected her of abusing me.
So, I was wondering, is this just standard procedure, whenever a patient is brought in to an emergency room by a spouse, to question the patient in order to rule out spousal abuse?
In September of 2019, I broke my leg.
A few months later, in November, I suddenly developed some severe muscle spasms in the other leg. Somehow, the two things are connected, but the mechanism is unclear to me. But that's not what this post is about.
The severe muscle spasms were extremely painful and debilitating, more so, in fact, than my broken and patched-together other leg was by this point. As a result, my wife took me to the nearest emergency room to seek treatment.
Now, on being admitted to the emergency room, right away, they made a point of separating me from my wife, and with my wife not present, I was questioned, with a very obvious purpose of determining whether or not my wife might have been physically, violently abusing me. She hadn't of course, and it didn't take very long for them to be satisfied that she hadn't.
Other than just a very general case of my wife having brought me in for one thing, while I was in a condition of having recently suffered a serious other injury, neither my wife nor I can think of any reason why they should have suspected her of abusing me.
So, I was wondering, is this just standard procedure, whenever a patient is brought in to an emergency room by a spouse, to question the patient in order to rule out spousal abuse?