P F Tinmore
Diamond Member
- Dec 6, 2009
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P F Tinmore, et al,
There is a misunderstanding here.
The Palestine Order in Council said:WHEREAS the Principal Allied Powers have agreed, for the purpose of giving effect to the provisions of Article 22 of the Covenant of the League of Nations, to entrust to a Mandatory selected by the said Powers the administration of the territory of Palestine, which formerly belonged to the Turkish Empire, within such boundaries as may be fixed by them;
And whereas the Principal Allied Powers have also agreed that the Mandatory should be responsible for putting into effect the declaration originally made on November 2, 1917, by the Government of His Britannic Majesty, and adopted by the said Powers, in favour of the establishment in Palestine of a national home for the Jewish people, it being clearly understood that nothing should be done which might prejudice the civil and religious rights of existing non-Jewish communities in Palestine, or the rights and political status enjoyed by Jews in any other country;
The limits of this Order are the territories to which the Mandate for Palestine applies, hereinafter described as Palestine.
11.--(1) The High Commissioner may, with the approval of a Secretary of State, by Proclamation divide Palestine into administrative divisions or districts in such manner and with such subdivisions as may be convenient for purposes of administration describing the boundaries thereof and assigning names thereto.
SOURCE: The Palestine Order in Council
(COMMENT)Frequently wikipedia is a good source but not everything is accurate. When it said "partition of the British Mandate into two states." I question this article. The British Mandate was not a place, it was an administration assigned to Palestine.
How can you divide an administration into two states.
Obviously when they said the British Mandate, they were referring to the British Mandate of Palestine, or Mandatory Palestine.
Nothing you said changes the fact that Resolution 181 WAS actually a factor in both DOI (Israel and Palestine)
Of course the Resolution was a factor in both the DoI Israel (1948) and Palestine (1988). It was a element of precedence cited in both documents.
There are people that would like to dispose of GA/RES/181(II), as a political inconvenience. But it is a historical document used by both sides of the ongoing dispute. Surely there are some aspects that have been overtaken by events. But is it the principle document that initially established the Jewish State and the Arab State.
Most Respectfully,
R
The Palestinians rejected the resolution outright.
Britain (the assigned mandate) refused to implement it. The Security Council would not impose it.
Israel said that it accepted it but thumbed its nose at the tenets of the resolution.
How can you keep bringing it up like it has some meaning?