nat4900
Diamond Member
- Mar 3, 2015
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- #1
The often cited Gallup polling shows that Independent voters make up 42% of the electorate; while 29% are democrats and 26% republicans....
Of the 42% of independents, polls show that just about half of them will vote democrat during an election where there's no independent running or when that independent candidate has little to no chance of winning.
Now, two questions arise:
1. How come politicians do not then run as "independents"?
2. And WHY with a higher percentage of democrat voters, we have a House of Reps. at 247 republicans and 188 democrats?
(I have some inkling as the "why" to the 2nd question....and not the first.....but I'd like to hear the opinion of others.).
Of the 42% of independents, polls show that just about half of them will vote democrat during an election where there's no independent running or when that independent candidate has little to no chance of winning.
Now, two questions arise:
1. How come politicians do not then run as "independents"?
2. And WHY with a higher percentage of democrat voters, we have a House of Reps. at 247 republicans and 188 democrats?
(I have some inkling as the "why" to the 2nd question....and not the first.....but I'd like to hear the opinion of others.).