Why are you continuing with a pointless line of debate when we've acknowledged it's simply a matter of definition? If you define inalienable rights as "a description of the relationship between individuals and government", then of course they will depend on government. If you define them as free will, they won't. What else is there to talk about?
Free will =/= a right to life and a right to persue happiness.
I get it. You're defining it differently. Nowhere to go from there I suppose.
Free will is a property of the human mind. Rights are not a property of the human mind. A person permanently comatose has no free will. But no one will argue he doesn't have natural rights simply because he is comatose.
You cannot redefine natural rights to mean free will. You might as well define them as chicken dinner.