manifold
Diamond Member
- Banned
- #1
When a company is sued for discrimination against a protected class, in regards to it's hiring, is there a presumption of innocence?
That is, does the accuser have to prove that the company discriminated?
or
Does the company have to prove that it didn't?
It seems to me that except for rare, obvious cases, proving anything either way has to be difficult, if no impossible.
How does this work?
That is, does the accuser have to prove that the company discriminated?
or
Does the company have to prove that it didn't?
It seems to me that except for rare, obvious cases, proving anything either way has to be difficult, if no impossible.
How does this work?