What you're actually up to is introducing a strawman or several into this important conversation.
Meanwhile, back to the topic:
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..In fact, I'd say that two people "gay marrying" are declaring to the world that they don't want children. After all, children must be given every opportunity a parent had, if at all possible. Since gays and lesbians had access to a mother and father, seeking newly today as a matter of "law" to deprive a child in their midst of such a fundamental opportunity would be negligence.
So, gays by virtue of marrying are declaring to the world "we want nothing to do with children". And if knowing a child would suffer without a father or mother in their home, gays insist they DO want children, then what gays are really saying is, "we selfishly want to deprive a child of vital needs for our own agenda"...
Therefore, anyone selling or taking money to ship a child off to such a home is guilty of child trafficking.
Ah, so any single adult must be prevented from having children? Does that include if, say, a woman is pregnant and the father dies? Would the woman need to abort? What about gay couples who were raised by single parents? Gays or single adults raised by someone other than their parents? Do they get to have children? And how, precisely, are you planning to prevent these people from having children?
Tragic situations do not reinvent the standard for a child's best interests. A motherless child is always a tragedy, they will always have less than their peers and suffer thusly. Same with fatherless. Because people stumble into or plan these situations is unfortunate. But we're talking about sending a child into that situation pre-manufactured that way, where one adult receives money to ship the child off to a tragic situation. That is child-trafficking.
You said a child must be given every opportunity a parent had, in relation to how they were raised. If a gay couple were both raised without a mother than, per your reasoning, they could have a child and still be given every opportunity they were. Now you have decided to move the goalposts, as usual, and change it to a standard you are making up on the fly as to what potential parents must provide their children. Apparently, based on what you are saying about the law, you seem to think this should be enforced legally, although you have yet to say how that would be done. You've also ignored the fact that the standards you are creating here do not exist in the law or in society; parents do not have to provide anything but the bare essentials, for the most part, in order to raise their children and are almost entirely unregulated when it comes to having children in the first place....
You seem to be laboring under the assumption that exceptions to the rule is how society should set legal standards. I'm saying in general that if society seeks to institutionalize depriving a child of either a mother or father where it is pre-planned and money changes hands, then society has created a new standard wherein a child's predictable demise (the tragedy of being motherless or fatherless) can be done for money.
That is to say, society if listening to your arguments would have to give a stamp of approval to looking the other way while this goes on.