P F Tinmore
Diamond Member
- Dec 6, 2009
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Who has the authority to negotiate Palestine's borders?Why are the legally recognized borders with Egypt and Jordan false?
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Who has the authority to negotiate Palestine's borders?Why are the legally recognized borders with Egypt and Jordan false?
Who has the authority to negotiate Palestine's borders?
So, who is negotiating borders now?Imaginary country, so imaginary authorities.
Unlike Israel, which has real borders.
Todd, could you start a thread on the borders between Israel and its neighbors, please. Thanks.Imaginary country, so imaginary authorities.
Unlike Israel, which has real borders.
Who has the authority to negotiate Palestine's borders?
(TRANSFER OF INTENT INTO ACTION THROUGH THE MANDATE)Israel's smoke and mirrors about its borders.
The hidden documents that reveal the true borders of Israel and Palestine (Updated)
Israel gained recognition in 1948 by accepting the UN Partition borders of 1947, but has negated those borders since. But any partition of the land must reflect that division…mondoweiss.net
This is key.
The words of the Declaration are intended to suggest that the creation of Israel was authorized by the United Nations. This is not correct. The UN does not have authority under its Charter to create or divide states. The Partition Plan was a recommendation only. The Plan envisaged a process, starting at the end of the Mandate, which would lead to the establishment of two states in a series of parallel stages. Because the Plan was rejected by the Arab side, it could not be implemented.
Link?International law vests that with the Jewish Nation.
Settler colonialism is well defined in academic circles. It has yet to find its way into international law. However, most of the tenets of settler colonialism are already addressed by international law.
- Settler colonialism is inherently aggressive. People do not get colonized voluntarily. It requires military force.
- Land theft/conquest violate the right to territorial integrity.
- Self determination and sovereignty are violated.
- Apartheid is necessary to divide us from them, from the superior and the inferior.
- Ethnic cleansing remove the natives to be replaced by colonial settlers.
WCRC: Foucs: Palestine - 6. Is Israel A Settler Colonial State?
How did the Mandate translate the homeland for the JewsRE: Boycott Israel
SUBTOPIC: Colonialism and Aggression
※→ P F Tinmore, et al,
BLUF: You are under the impression that the intent of the Allied Powers in 1920 would NOT be interpreted the same way as 100 years late.
"The High Contracting Parties agree to entrust, by application of the provisions of Article 22, the administration of Palestine, within such boundaries as may be determined by the Principal Allied Powers, to a Mandatory, to be selected by the said Powers. The Mandatory will be responsible for putting into effect the declaration originally made on November 8, 1917, by the British Government, and adopted by the other Allied Powers, in favour of the establishment in Palestine of a national home for the Jewish people, it being clearly understood that nothing shall be done which may prejudice the civil and religious rights of existing non-Jewish communities in Palestine, or the rights and political status enjoyed by Jews in any other country."
(TRANSFER OF INTENT INTO ACTION THROUGH THE MANDATE)
The Principal Allied Powers have agreed, for the purpose of giving effect to the provisions of Article 22 of the Covenant of the League of Nations, to entrust to a Mandatory selected by the said Powers the administration of the territory of Palestine, which formerly belonged to the Turkish Empire, within such boundaries as may be fixed by them; and
Whereas the Principal Allied Powers have also agreed that the Mandatory should be responsible for putting into effect the declaration originally made on November 2nd, 1917, by the Government of His Britannic Majesty, and adopted by the said Powers, in favour of the establishment in Palestine of a national home for the Jewish people, it being clearly understood that nothing should be done which might prejudice the civil and religious rights of existing non-Jewish communities in Palestine, or the rights and political status enjoyed by Jews in any other country;
(COMMENT)
The Mandatory Power (UK) did not consider that any decision had declared the permanent boundary for any self-governing and independent state within the territory except that of Transjordan (1946 Treaty). And this was made clear in the Memorandum written in 1948 on the meaning of the termination of the Mandate:
After the 15th May, 1948, Palestine will continue to be a legal entity but it will still not be a sovereign state because it will not be immediately self-governing. The authority responsible for its administration will, however, have changed.
No matter what decision document you may be interpreting that was written, the UK (the last of the Great War Principle Allied Powers) set the conditions for the remainder of the territory under the Mandate, will not be immediately self-governing. SO! No matter what you might bring up prior to the termination, at the end of the termination (15 MAY 1948), → there was No Such State as Palestine.
On the termination, the State of Israel was created under the authority of "Self-Determination" and began to administer its territorial integrity. The Arab Population did not take any such measure. In fact, the Arab Palestinians made it abundantly clear that they would NOT cooperate with the UN Palestine Commission. "The following telegraphic response was received by the Secretary-General on 19 January 1948:
As a result, the Commission helped the "National Council for the Jewish State" to establish self-governing institutions within the territory formally under the mandate.
- “ARAB HIGHER COMMITTEE IS DETERMINED PERSIST IN REJECTION PARTITION AND IN REFUSAL RECOGNIZE UNO RESOLUTION THIS RESPECT AND ANYTHING DERIVING THEREFROM. FOR THESE REASONS IT IS UNABLE ACCEPT INVITATION”
Most Respectfully,
R
How did the Mandate translate the homeland for the Jews
It wasn't a transfer of land. The Mandate had no land.
It wasn't a transfer of sovereignty. The Mandate had no sovereignty.
How did the Mandate translate the homeland for the Jews
It wasn't a transfer of land. The Mandate had no land.
It wasn't a transfer of sovereignty. The Mandate had no sovereignty.
Link?
Britain's version of a national home was different from the Zionist's. Britain was charged to create an independent state. Nothing was created but violence.The mandates for Mesopotamia, Syria and Palestine were assigned by the Supreme Court of the League of Nations at its San Remo meeting in April 1920. Negotiations between Great Britain and the United States with regard to the Palestine mandate were successfully concluded in May 1922, and approved by the Council of the League of Nations in July 1922. The mandates for Palestine and Syria came into force simultaneously on September 29, 1922. In this document, the League of Nations recognized the "historical connection of the Jewish people with Palestine" and the "grounds for reconstituting their national home in that country."
That's why any change of authority in the land
is legal function of Israeli sovereign choice alone.
Duck.Imaginary country, so imaginary authorities.
Unlike Israel, which has real borders.
Britain's version of a national home was different from the Zionist's. Britain was charged to create an independent state. Nothing was created was violence.
(COMMENT)That's the letter of the law, there's simply no other version.
Arab violence against local Jews was not the result,
but exactly the initial cause of Zionism.
So the main question remains,
does the law mention anyone else
in reference to national sovereignty?