who says you're ordinary? or the norm?
This entire thread appears to be the logical fallacy of false presumption.
Seriously? You see no social development in the entire history of humanity? That's bizarre to me. The social evolution of the human race has been measured by the empowerment of the individual. The movement of power from the top. We have evolved from thinking leaders were gods to believing they ruled by divine right, to the Magna Carta, where the king was forced to share power, to the modern developments of the free press, which has lead to Gandhi and King and Biko and Walesa, putting true power into the hands of ordinary people.
Of course there is social development though I disagree with your conflicting examples. Where did I say different? The false presumption of the thread comes in when one use the logical fallacy that some cultures are better than others. The whole thing rests on amusing belief that one culture can decide what is superior and what is not.
A very confusing reply. Cultures develop but that development is irrelevant? All cultures do is decide what is superior and what is not. That's how they develop. Do you think North Korea has a bright and vibrant culture? They don't. How about Russia? What was the Arab Spring except yet another example of cultures yearning for what we have in the West?
The Enlightenment started in Europe, but they didn't adopt the principles developed by those philosophers until we showed them the way. Then they did. Why? Because the idea of a nation built on the principle of a social contract was clearly better. An important evolutionary step forward. One which I have no problem labeling as superior.
You managed to imply I said something again that I didnt say. You dont have to do that to make your point. Yes all cultures decide what they think is superior but that doesnt mean they know what they are talking about. Some cultures think eating monkey brains is superior food culture. Some dont. Who is correct and what makes them correct? I dont live in North Korea so how would I know if they have a bright and vibrant culture? Its possible they do since S. Korea does.. Same with Russia.
The Enlightenment was based on the teachings of the Moors that literally reeducated europeans to Greek history and their own history. If there were no Moors then europe is stuck in the dark ages where they thought water contained evil spirits and considered not bathing a good thing. Also the Enlightenment was not really so enlightening. This is the time period where the ideas of racial superiority for europeans were developed along with the rationalization for slavery. Practically everyone knows that isnt enlightening. In fact it shows that europeans had a hard time with comprehension.
Again, I find your perspective to be very strange. What I'm talking about is social evolution. It is no different from biological evolution. All such development is a continuum. Are such developments objectively superior? In the long run, yes. Changes are either beneficial or they are not. If they are beneficial they are retained. If they are beneficial they spread.
A continuum is a process which takes a loooong time to play out. The value of the incremental steps can be argued, but not the entire process. All cultures, from the Neanderthal and Cro-Magnon on, have contributed to this continuum. Islamic culture contributed important steps to this development, a long time ago. Then they suffered setbacks. They stagnated, in isolation, for a thousand years. Ever since they were thrust back into the international mix in WWI, their relative cultural inferiority has seemed glaringly apparent to most people in the West, but apparently not to you. You apparently do not see their tribalism as a backwards, less evolved state. You apparently don't see theocracy as less evolved than democracy.
The Enlightenment was based on every piece of philosophy which had previously been written. It was a philosophical evolution. Ignoring the benefits that have accrued from that is willful ignorance, imo. Your comments about slavery are absurd. Slavery had been a constant for all of human history until the time of the Enlightenment when it died out throughout the world. Yes, there were extremely contradictory aspects to Enlightenment concepts of equality and race. So what? Has America ever fully lived up to its principles? No. Does that negate the value of those principles? No. Were the founding fathers feminists? No. Does that mean the principles they enshrined weren't eventually the rationale behind the end of slavery and the rising equality of women? No. Did Enlightenment philosophers consider the LGBT community? Of course not. Does that mean that the eventual recognition of the equal status of the LGBT community was not based on the Enlightenment based principles enshrined in our Constitution? As Justice Kennedy wrote:
"The nature of injustice is that we may not always see it in our own times. The generations that wrote and ratified the Bill of Rights and the Fourteenth Amendment did not presume to know the extent of freedom in all of its dimensions, and so they entrusted to future generations a charter protecting the right of all persons to enjoy liberty as we learn its meaning. When new insight reveals discord between the Constitution’s central protections and a received legal stricture, a claim to liberty must be addressed."
Why is there a problem recognizing the superiority of this flexible, evolving system? Why is there a reluctance to state, unequivocally, that a system which suppresses women, which persecutes gays, which enshrines intolerance of religious differences, is inferior?