Yes it IS limiting free speech. It's criminalizing certain types of free speech.
So, who determined what kind of criminal speech liable and slander was? Was it the people who were slandered? The people who slandered someone else? How did it come about that slander and liable were determined to be a criminal act (in fact, they are a civil violation I think).
How are any criminal violations determined?
Slander and libel cause damage - the bar is actually pretty high for it in order to protect free speech.
Exactly. So the video discusses the limitations of certain groups of people's speech on the basis of free speech zones, hate speech (again, this is the heart of the real issue here) and speech deemed offensive.
Do they get to determine that? Does the public at large? Or are there standards and procedures that must be met in order for one group of people to silence another?
I think there's a lot of grey area and usually courts rule in favor of free speech.
Is it limitations of "certain groups of people" or limitations of certain types of speech?
Speech that is deemed offensive...should not be banned based on that alone - same with hate speech.
On the other hand - all people's rights are equal in a public area. A person minding his own business should not be confronted and verbally assaulted by another.