Wait. So now your standard is "If I cant show you infidels being beheaded then that means there is no sharia law being implemented"? I want to get this clear before I humiliate you so you dont start moving the goalposts.
Is your idea that unless people are being beheaded there is no sharia law?
You dipshits imply they are somehow violating US law. The beheading of an infidel was illustrative.
So go ahead. Explain "sharia law" and then show where it is being implement in contravention to US law. Eating halal meat is not against US law. Just ask the Jews.
OK so now your standard is "It's not sharia law if it doesnt conflict with US law." Is that right?
A lot of people have tried to violate US law using their religion as an excuse. The Oregon bakery for example. Polygamous Mormons, for another example.
So it would not surprise me if a Muslim tried the same. What matters it he ultimate outcome. Did US law prevail.
Reading Peach's link, I have read the first three cases so far, and US law prevailed in each of them. One guy thought he should be able to beat his wife, but US law prevailed.
In the second, US international agreements (comity) prevailed.
In the third, contract law prevailed. Dumb shit signed a pre-nup without knowing what was in it.