Which was my point, that law was Abraham, not Babylonian.
Babylonians got it from them.
no at the time of ABRAHAM----leaving Mesopotamia-----those
lands ---ie Ur and Aram and HARAN or whatever------already had
complex legal systems
That's why I would like to know.
I bet you he will say Break with the rights of the first born was law from Abraham.
Primogeniture was around since the beginning of time.
I guess I do have to use the dates.

We are discussing law from 1700 B.C. vs 600B.C.
Abraham left MESOPOTAMIA -------the part called ARAM.
It was not called BABYLON-------his part was called ARAM----about 2000
BC Mesopotamia-----consisted of a few ""countries""-----that had
laws and customs and religion--------The tablets which describe the
COMPLEX legal code of the area is THE CODE OF HUMMARABI----
a compiled set of laws-----about 1800 BC-----but those laws are just
A COMPILATION of the existing laws and customs of that very old society----
so Abraham had LIVED UNDER THOSE LAWS ----GREW UP UNDER THOSE
LAWS-------he did not invent the laws-----he BROUGHT THEM TO
CANAAN in his MIND. He also FOUNDED the community called HEBREWS---
his group of people in Canaan----something like a tribe. The book of genesis
makes it clear that Abraham REPUDIATED LOTS OF THE LAWS AND CUSTOMS
OF MESOPOTAMIA ----he ran his community---theoretically----according to his
own ideas. Hebrew custom was, therefore-----from Mesopotamia ---modified
by ABRAHAM