You are citing the "OPINIONS" of people who had nothing to do with the events and knew nothing about the practices of the day------something like me trying to
interpret the ODYSSEY. -------- More than 200 years after an event vaguely described
by writers that never met jesus. Use your head. I have no doubt that the bible of today compares favorably with that which was put together by the NICEAN COUNCIL so what? Your allusion to 'biblical manuscripts" are just
that--------nothing more. You got something written by Jesus or Mary or John the Baptist?
Your statement just shows how ignorant you truly are and that you really don't know enough about the Bible to be arguing over it. The NT wasn't written at the exact time that Jesus was on earth, but the authors of many of the NT books did walk with Jesus and did know about the events and practices of the day because they were alive and lived there during that time. Also, it wasn't written 200 years after.....another indication that you really don't know what you are talking about. Scholars who know and understand a lot more than you do have placed the writing of the New Testament at no later than 62 AD.
Here, acquaint yourself with the authors....so you don't repeat your inane comment that the writers never met Jesus.
BRIEF BIOGRAPHY OF EACH AUTHOR:
1. Matthew: Mathew, also known as Levi, was a publican or tax collector who was chosen by Jesus to be one of the twelve Apostles. As a tax collector Matthew would have been a literate person well suited to author one of the gospel records. Early church tradition credits Matthew with the authorship of the gospel bearing his name.
2. Mark: This disciple is given credit by the early church as the author of the Gospel bearing his name. Mark was the Latin surname given to this young man who's Jewish name was John. John Mark was cousin to Barnabas a prominent figure in the early church. Mark traveled with his cousin Barnabas in ministry and later in years ministered to the Apostles Peter and Paul. Mark is not identified as one who walked with Jesus yet his association with the Apostles makes him more than qualified to produce a gospel record.
(snip)
The Authors of the New Testament
If Acts was written in 62 or before, and Luke was written before Acts (say 60), then Luke was written less than thirty years of the death of Jesus. This is contemporary to the generation who witnessed the events of Jesus' life, death, and resurrection. This is precisely what Luke claims in the prologue to his Gospel:
Many have undertaken to draw up a record of the things that have been fulfilled among us, just as they were handed down to us by those who were eye-witnesses and servants of the word. Therefore, since I myself have carefully investigated everything from the beginning, it seemed good also to me to write an orderly account for you, most excellent Theophilus, so that you may know the certainty of the things you have been taught. [5uke 1:1-4]
Luke presents the same information about who Jesus is, what he taught, and his death and resurrection as do the other Gospels. Thus, there is not a reason to reject their historical accuracy either.
The Dating of the New Testament
Go peddle your nonsense elsewhere.
While it wasn't written down, it was being transmitted orally before that, as was the norm for much of Jewish theology; the first Christians were mostly Jewish, after all, and in the beginnings they preached from the Jewish Temple, until the persecutions began anyway.
The 'orthodox' version won out because they were by far the most extant and accepted; the claims that the Romans and Constantine rewrote it all and excluded some vast amount of Gospels is just nonsense, based on finding a few scrolls and expanding their importance in typical conspiracy theory fashion into some sort of fiction of a huge majority of Xians, when in fact they were very minor and scattered offshoots of no importance. The Gnostics weren't Christians, in any case, just sophists and in many cases liars and forgers, as were the 'Arianists' and others.
while not as confused as is Mertex regarding jewish theology and ethos----
You are still confused, Picaro. What jewish "theology" was transmitted orally?
I am not suggesting that there was no unwritten stuff that eventually got
put in books------but just to what do YOU refer? The psalms? Genesis?
for the record-----the story of jesus and the adulteress about to be stoned
by "Pharisees"--------does not make any sense at all unless the event can
be described as an ILLEGAL LYNCHING-----something like southern Christians
did to blacks they accused of "touching a white woman" Ie---the NT is describing that which would be a crime in the Jurisprudence of the day----not
a PRACTICE
Actually, lynching is a pretty fair analogy. A mob, organized to exterminate what it sees as a societal defect, whether it's a black, an adulterer, or whoever has overstepped the bounds of an imaginary social order. The Ku Klux Klan used to beat and whip drunks and adulterers, and in one case I recall pulled a (white) woman out of her house and whipped her for "not going to church". So it's very much the same psychology --- "honor" beatings, like "honor" killings, in the Klan's case the "honor" of the community. It was all into that shit, especially trying to set itself up as the defender of the "honor" of white people, particularly white women. It's the same mentality.
But your diversion to the legality of the stoning in the NT, or all those in the OT, is irrelevant, since the point was not the legal status, but the simple fact that it
existed in that time --- regardless of its legal status.
Nice try, no cigar.
good point-----a story in the NICEA COUNCIL compiled book aka the NT that is not
at all consistent with jurisprudence or custom of the jews of Judea/Israel during the
putative life-time of Jesus-------gets NO CIGAR. That lynchings were a custom
of the European Christian invaders of the Americas is well documented. There is
no evidence whatsoever that lynchings were a custom of the jews of Judea/Israel
as a response to sexual indiscretion. In fact the actual judicial handling
of such events is EXTENSIVELY documented. That stoning was one of the
methods of execution in jewish jurisprudence is ALSO extensively documented----
but ----the fact is that it was not done for a single event of adultery-----also well
documented. That stoning was and REMAINS a prominent aspect of Islamic
jurisprudence for ANY sexual indiscretion by a woman in Islamic law is also
extensively documented. For the sake of completeness-----I will add that political
assassination -----did happen-----now and then in the period of time under consideration in Judea/Israel ---ie circa the lifetime of Jesus. Stoning is part of
the law of Judaism in ancient times-----albeit rarely actually used. Stoning is a part of Islamic law in current times and often employed