Whoever owns pieces of private property is irrelevant.You have not shown the facts, as presented as false. That's impossible, the facts are the facts as reported by the UN. Jews owned less than 15% of the land. Now, what does the fact that the Jews stole the land from the Christians and Muslims, who owned more than 85% of it, have to do with death camps and the final solution? Weren't the death camps operated by Christians and the final solution a German idea?
I So if your link shows on one page that the arab muslims only owned 0.8% of Palestine land while the Jews owned 4.8% it is not showing your interpretation to be false. Since when has possessed been the same as owned, a thief can posses your property but they can never own it can they.
Read again the MANDATE for PALESTINE and see who LEGALLY owned the land and why that was made INTERNATIONAL LAW.
No they were operated by muslims and the final solution was an Islamic idea from the time of Mohamed. Today it is still touted by hamas and fatah as one of their goals for Palestine. This is what you support in your every post the genocide of the Jews and Christians so that you can them move on to Europe with your mantra first Saturday then sunday
It must be said, however, that the statute of the League of Nations Mandate for Palestine (1922) was itself in contradiction to the provisions of Art. 22 of the League’s Covenant insofar as it incorporated – in the Preamble and in Articles 2, 4, 6 and 7 – the basic provisions of the Balfour Declaration. The Mandate for Palestine in itself violated letter and spirit of Art. 22 of the League’s Covenant, which evokes (in Par. 1), in connection with the protection of the rights of peoples under the Mandate, a “sacred trust of civilization”.
On the basis of this legal concept, national Palestinian sovereignty was not annulled when Britain was entrusted by the League of Nations with the mandate over Palestine.[6] Furthermore, the mandate over Palestine – as the mandates over Syria, Lebanon, Iraq and Transjordan – fell into category (A) according to the classification of the League of Nations. This category, in distinction from the categories (B) and (C), implied the expectation of early independence.[7] Henry Cattan rightly concludes: “The legal effect under international law of the detachment of Palestine from the Ottoman Empire and of recognition of its people as an independent nation was to make of this country a separate and independent state.”[8] All the legal assumptions relating to the international status of Palestine were based on the principle according to which sovereignty over a mandated territory lies in its inhabitants.[9] This legal notion has also been confirmed in a United Nations report on the origins of the Palestine problem where it is stated that the sovereignty of Palestine (having been classified as falling under a category “A” Mandate) “could not be alienated either by the Mandatory Power or by the League.”[10]
Palestinian-Israeli Conflict
In fact, to allow the British to establish a European colony in Palestine, they had to circumvent the requirements of the Covenant of the LoN, contrary to International law which established how the administration of Class A Mandates (provisional states) was to be handled.
The source is invalid if you bother to read the link organized by the Arab Cause Solidarity Committee
The LoN made international law and you are trying to impose 2015 laws on something that happened in 1923
What source. I am A/364, not a subcommittee report.
A/364
3 September 1947
OFFICIAL RECORDS OF THE SECOND SESSION OF
THE GENERAL ASSEMBLY
SUPPLEMENT No. 11
UNITED NATIONS
SPECIAL COMMITTEE
ON PALESTINE
REPORT TO THE GENERAL ASSEMBLY
VOLUME 1
MANIPULATING THE REPORTS AGAIN TO PREACH YOUR RACIST ANTUI ISRAELI PROPAGANDA